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Exam Code: 70-346
Exam Name: Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements
Updated: Jul 29, 2017
Q&As: 211

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-346 Dumps Exam Q&As:

Question No : 1  A company migrates to Office 365. 2,000 active users have valid Office 365 licenses
assigned. An additional 5,000 user accounts were created during the migration and testing
processes. These users do not have any licensesassigned. You need to remove the Office 365 user accounts that do not have any licenses assigned by using the least amount of administrative effort.
Which Windows PowerShell command should you run?
A. Get-MsolUser -All -EnabledFilter “DisabledOnly” | Remove-MsolUser -Force
B. Get-MsolUser-EnabledFilter “DisabledOnly” | Remove-MsolUser -Force
C. Get-MsolUser -All -UnlicensedUsersOnly | Remove-MsolUser -Force
D. Get-MsolUser -UnlicensedUsersOnly | Remove-MsolUser–Force
70-346 dumps 
Answer: C

Question No : 2 DRAG DROP  Litware Inc. has an Office 365 Enterprise El plan. Employees have access to all Office 365
services. Employees in the human resources (HR) department must continue to use the on-premises
SharePoint 2013 deployment due to legal requirements. You need to disable access to SharePoint Online for all HR department employees. How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell commands? To answer, drag
the appropriate Windows PowerShell segment to the correct location or locations in the answer area. Each Windows PowerShell segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
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Question No : 3 HOTSPOT
A company deploys an Office 365 tenant.
You prepare to use the bulk add tool to add users to Office 365.
You need to prepare a file to use with the bulk add tool.
Which fields must you include in the file? To answer, drag the appropriate response to
each field. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need
to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

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70-346

Question No : 4 DRAG DROP

A company has 50 employees that use Office 365.
You need to enforce password complexity requirements for all accounts.
How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell command? To answer, drag
the appropriate Windows PowerShell segment to the correct location or locations. Each
Windows PowerShell segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may
need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
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70-346 exam Answer:

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Question No : 5 DRAG DROP

You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. Your company uses Office 365 for
collaboration. You must reset the password for all of the employees in your company.
You need to ensure that all employees create a new password the next time they sign in to
Office 365. How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell command? To answer, drag
the appropriate Windows PowerShell segment to the correct location or locations. Each
Windows PowerShell segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may
need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
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Question No : 6  You are the Office 365 administrator for your company.
You must use Windows PowerShell to manage cloud identities in Office 365. You must use
a computer that runs Windows 8 to perform the management tasks.
You need to ensure that the Windows 8 computer has the necessary software installed.
What should you install first?
A. Microsoft Office 365 Best Practices Analyzer for Windows PowerShell
B. Windows PowerShell 4.0
C. Remote Server Administration Tools for Windows
D. Microsoft Online Services Sign-in Assistant
70-346 pdf Answer: D

Question No : 7 DRAG DROP  You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company has two
administrators named User1 and User2. Users must be able to perform the activities as shown in the following table:70-346 dumps

You need to grant the appropriate administrative role to each user
What should you do? To answer, drag the appropriate role to the correct user. Each role
may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar
between panes or scroll to view content

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Question No : 8 DRAG DROP  A company deploys an Office 365 tenant.
You need to enable multi-factor authentication for Office 365.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate
actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.70-346 dumps

Question No : 9 DRAG DROP  Contoso Ltd. plans to use Office 365 services for collaboration between departments.
Contoso has one Active Directory Domain Services domain named contoso.local. You
deploy the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool.
You plan to implement single sign-on (SSO) for Office 365.
You need to synchronize only the user accounts that have valid routable domain names
and are members of specified departments.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate
actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.70-346 dumps

70-346 vce Answer:

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Question No : 10
An organization plans to migrate to Office 365. You use the Windows Azure Active
Directory (AD) Sync tool.
Several users will not migrate to Office 365. You must exclude these users from
synchronization. All users must continue to authenticate against the on-premises Active
Directory.
You need to synchronize the remaining users.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the
solution.
A. Populate an attribute for each user account.
B. Disable the user accounts in Active Directory.
C. Perform a full synchronization.
D. Configure the connection filter.
E. Run the Windows PowerShell command Set-MsolDirSyncEnabled -EnableDirSync
$false.
70-346 dumps Answer: B,D,E

 

Question No : 11 You use a centralized identity management system as a source of authority for user
account information. You export a list of new user accounts to a file on a daily basis. Your
company uses a local Active Directory for storing user accounts for on-premises solutions.
You are configuring the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool.
New user accounts must be created in both the local Active Directory and Office 365. You
must import user account data into Office 365 daily.
You need to import the new users. What should you do?
A. Use the Office 365 admin center to import the file.
B. Create a Windows PowerShell script to import account data from the file into Active
Directory.
C. Use the Windows Azure Management Portal to import the file.
D. Create a Windows PowerShell script that uses the MSOnline module to import account
data from the file.

Answer: B

Question No : 12 DRAG DROP  An organization plans to deploy an Office 365 tenant. The company has two servers
named SERVER1 and SERVER2. SERVER1 is a member server of the Active Directory
forest that you are synchronizing. SERVER2 is a standalone server. Both servers run
Windows Server 2012. You need to use the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool to provision users.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate
actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
70-346 dumps

Answer:

70-346 dumps

 

 

Question No : 13
✑ ✑
An organization deploys an Office 365 tenant.
User accounts must be synchronized to Office 365 by using the Windows Azure Active
Directory Sync tool.
You have the following password policies:
Passwords for the on-premises Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) user
accounts are at least six characters long.
Passwords for Office 365 user accounts are at least eight characters long.
You need to ensure that the user accounts will be synchronized. Which user accounts will
be synchronized?
A. All user accounts
B. No user accounts
C. User accounts with a password length of at least 8 characters
D. User accounts with a password length of at least 14 characters
70-346 exam Answer: A

 

Question No : 14 Contoso, Ltd. plans to use Office 365 for email services and Lync Online. Contoso has four
unique domain names.
You need to migrate domain names to Office 365.
Which two domain names should you exclude from the migration? Each correct answer
presents part of the solution.
A. contoso.us
B. contoso
C. contoso.local
D. contoso.co
Answer: B,C
 

Question No : 15 HOTSPOT  An organization prepares to migrate to Office 365. The organization has one domain
controller named NYC-DC1 and one server named NYC-DS that is designated as the
directory synchronization computer.
The organization has the following servers:
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You plan to upgrade the servers to support directory synchronization.
You must upgrade each server to meet only the minimum requirements by using the least
amount of administrative effort.
You need to ensure that you can use the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool to
synchronize the local Active Directory with Office 365.
What should you do? Select the correct action from each list in the answer area.

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Exam Code: 300-370
Exam Name: Troubleshooting Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks
Updated: Jul 30, 2017
Q&As: 60

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QUESTION 1
Which product records any project outcomes perceived as negative by stakeholders?
A. Business Case
B. Project Plan
C. Communication Management Strategy
D. Project Product Description
300-370 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
What is the definition of a project outcome?
A. A measurable improvement that is perceived as an advantage by one or more stakeholders
B. The reason for the project
C. The result of the change derived from using the project’s outputs
D. The project’s specialist products.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Which is NOT a purpose of a Benefits Review Plan?
A. Define the period over which the cost-benefit analysis will be based
B. Describe how to measure the performance of the project’s products in operational use
C. Define the scope, timing and ownership of the benefit reviews required
D. Describe how to measure and confirm any benefits that are to be realised after the project is closed
300-370 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Which product documents the information needed to demonstrate continued business justification?
A. Business Case
B. Communication Management Strategy
C. Project Product Description
D. Quality Management Strategy
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Which product documents the information needed to demonstrate continued business justification?
A. Business Case
B. Communication Management Strategy
C. Project Product Description
D. Quality Management Strategy
300-370 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
Which is NOT a purpose of a Benefits Review Plan?
A. Define the period over which the cost-benefit analysis will be based
B. Describe how to measure the performance of the project’s products in operational use

C. Define the scope, timing and ownership of the benefit reviews required
D. Describe how to measure and confirm any benefits that are to be realised after the project is closed
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
What is an off-specification?
A. A new requirement
B. A quality tolerance
C. A type of issue
D. A major risk
300-370 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
Which is a type of issue?
A. A lesson
B. A request for change
C. An Exception Report
D. A risk with an estimated high impact
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
Which is a typical core activity within configuration management?
A. Quality assurance
B. Risk management
C. Verification and audit
D. Progress reporting
300-370 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
Which is a typical core activity within configuration management?
A. Issue management
B. Quality inspection
C. Identification
D. Preparation
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
What needs to be in place to ensure effective issue and change control?
A. Configuration management system
B. Manage by exception
C. Quality planning
D. Information needs for stakeholders
300-370 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Which should be funded by a change budget?
A. Increase in agreed scope
B. Initiation stage
C. Change Authority
D. Handover activities
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
Which should be funded from a change budget?
A. The Starting up a Project process
B. A fallback plan
C. An agreed change to the scope of a project
D. A change to a plan, within allocated tolerances, due to poor estimating
300-370 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
Which is the Issue Register NOT used for?
A. Capture external events that are impacting a stage
B. Record information about a deviation in stage tolerance
C. Capture any threats or opportunities that might have an impact on a stage
D. Record any problems identified when authorizing a Work Package
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
If the Project Board instructs the Project Manager to implement a request for change, which document
would contain details of that change?
A. Checkpoint Report
B. Highlight Report
C. Issue Report
D. Product Status Account
300-370 vce Correct Answer: C

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Exam Code: 200-125
Exam Name: CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0)
Updated: Jun 26, 2017
Q&As: 930

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QUESTION 16
What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two.)
A. exactly one active router
B. one or more standby routers
C. one or more backup virtual routers
D. exactly one standby active router
E. exactly one backup virtual router
200-125 dumps 
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 17
Which three statements about static routing are true? (Choose three.)
A. It uses consistent route determination.
B. It is best used for small-scale deployments.
C. Routing is disrupted when links fail.
D. It requires more resources than other routing methods.
E. It is best used for large-scale deployments.
F. Routers can use update messages to reroute when links fail.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 18
In which three ways is an IPv6 header simpler than an IPv4 header? (Choose three.)
A. Unlike IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers have a fixed length.
B. IPv6 uses an extension header instead of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
C. IPv6 headers eliminate the IPv4 Checksum field.
D. IPv6 headers use the Fragment Offset field in place of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
E. IPv6 headers use a smaller Option field size than IPv4 headers.
F. IPv6 headers use a 4-bit TTL field, and IPv4 headers use an 8-bit TTL field.
200-125 pdf 
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 19
Which command is necessary to permit SSH or Telnet access to a cisco switch that is otherwise
configured for these vty line protocols?
A. transport type all
B. transport output all
C. transport preferred all
D. transport input all
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
Which two security appliances will you use in a network? (Choose two.)
A. ATM
B. IDS
C. IOS
D. IOX
E. IPS
F. SDM
200-125 exam 
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 21
What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.)
A. They are routed the same as public IP addresses.
B. They are less costly than public IP addresses.
C. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections.
D. They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies.
E. They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 22
how to see dhcp conflict?
A. show ip dhcp pool
B. show dhcp database
200-125 vce 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
Which Cisco platform can verify ACLs?
A. Cisco Prime Infrastructure
B. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
C. Cisco APIC-EM
D. Cisco IOS-XE
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
Which type of mac address is aged automatically by the switch?
A. Dynamic
B. Static
C. automatic
D. manual
200-125 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
Which major component of the network virtualization architecture isolate users according to policy?
A. policy enforcement
B. network access control
C. network services virtualization

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
Which function does IP SLA ICMP ECHO operation perform to assist with troubleshooting
A. packet-loss detection
B. congestion detection
C. hop-by-hop response time
D. one way jitter measurement
200-125 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
If a router has 3 hosts connected in one port and two other hosts connected in another port, how may
broadcast domains are present on the router?
A. 5
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
Under normal operations, cisco recommends that you configure switch ports on which vlan?
A. on the default vlan
B. on the management vlan
C. on the native vlan
D. on any vlan except the default vlan
200-125 exam 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
Which command can you enter to display the operational status of the network ports on a router?
A. show interface switchport
B. show ip interface brief
C. show running-config interface fastethernet 0/1
D. show interface status
Correct Answer: B

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Exam Code: 400-101
Exam Name: CCIE Routing and Switching Written v5.0
Updated: May 18, 2017
Q&As: 158

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    400-101

    Teststarter Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-105 PDF Exam Q&As

    Question No : 1 – (Topic 1)Refer to the exhibit
    400-101
    ICMP Echo requests from host A are not reaching the intended destination on host B. What
    is the problem?
    A. The ICMP payload is malformed.
    B. The ICMP Identifier (BE) is invalid.
    C. The negotiation of the connection failed.
    D. The packet is dropped at the next hop.
    E. The link is congested.
    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Here we see that the Time to Live (TTL) value of the packet is one, so it will be forwarded
    to the next hop router, but then dropped because the TTL value will be 0 at the next hop.

    Question No : 2 – (Topic 1)
    What is the cause of ignores and overruns on an interface, when the overall traffic rate of
    the interface is low?
    A. a hardware failure of the interface
    B. a software bug
    C. a bad cable
    D. microbursts of traffic
    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Micro-bursting is a phenomenon where rapid bursts of data packets are sent in quick
    succession, leading to periods of full line-rate transmission that can overflow packet buffers
    of the network stack, both in network endpoints and routers and switches inside the
    network.
    Symptoms of micro bursts will manifest in the form of ignores and/ or overruns (also shown
    as accumulated in “input error” counter within show interface output). This is indicative of
    receive ring and corresponding packet buffer being overwhelmed due to data bursts
    coming in over extremely short period of time (microseconds). You will never see a
    sustained data traffic within show interface’s “input rate” counter as they are averaging bits
    per second (bps) over 5 minutes by default (way too long to account for microbursts). You
    can understand microbursts from a scenario where a 3-lane highway merging into a single
    lane at rush hour – the capacity burst cannot exceed the total available bandwidth (i.e.
    single lane), but it can saturate it for a period of time.

    Question No : 3 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)
    Drag and drop the extended ping command field on the left to its usage on the right.
    400-101
    400-101

    Question No : 4 – (Topic 1) Refer to the exhibit.
    400-101
    Which statement about the output is true?
    A. The flow is an HTTPS connection to the router, which is initiated by 144.254.10.206.
    B. The flow is an HTTP connection to the router, which is initiated by 144.254.10.206.
    C. The flow is an HTTPS connection that is initiated by the router and that goes to
    144.254.10.206.
    D. The flow is an HTTP connection that is initiated by the router and that goes to
    144.254.10.206.
    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    We can see that the connection is initiated by the Source IP address shown as
    144.254.10.206. We also see that the destination protocol (DstP) shows 01BB, which is in
    hex and translates to 443 in decimal. SSL/HTTPS uses port 443.

    Question No : 5 – (Topic 1)
    Refer to the exhibit.
    400-101
    Routers R1 and R2 are configured as shown, and traffic from R1 fails to reach host
    209.165.201.254.
    Which action can you take to correct the problem?
    A. Ensure that R2 has a default route in its routing table.
    B. Change the OSPF area type on R1 and R2.
    C. Edit the router configurations so that address 209.165.201.254 is a routable address.
    D. Remove the default-information originate command from the OSPF configuration of R2.
    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Not sure that any of these answers are correct, it appears that this configuration is valid for
    reaching that one specific host IP. Answer A does have a route to that host so it would not
    need a default route to get to it. Choice B is incorrect as the area types have nothing to do
    with this. C is incorrect as that IP address is routable, and D is needed so that R1 will have
    a default route advertised to it from R2 so that it can reach this destination.

    Question No : 6 – (Topic 1)
    Which statement describes the purpose of the Payload Type field in the RTP header?
    A. It identifies the signaling protocol.
    B. It identifies the codec.
    C. It identifies the port numbers for RTP.
    D. It identifies the port numbers for RTCP.
    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    PT, Payload Type. 7 bits: Identifies the format of the RTP payload and determines its
    interpretation by the application. A profile specifies a default static mapping of payload type
    codes to payload formats. Additional payload type codes may be defined dynamically
    through non-RTP means. An RTP sender emits a single RTP payload type at any given
    time; this field is not intended for multiplexing separate media streams. A full list of codecs
    and their payload type values can be found at the link below:

    Question No : 7 – (Topic 1) How many hash buckets does Cisco Express Forwarding use for load balancing?
    A. 8
    B. 16
    C. 24
    D. 32
    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    In order to understand how the load balance takes place, you must first see how the tables
    relate. The Cisco Express Forwarding table points to 16 hash buckets (load share table),
    which point to the adjacency table for parallel paths. Each packet to be switched is broken
    up into the source and destination address pair and checked against the loadshare table.

    Question No : 8 – (Topic 1) Which statement is true regarding the UDP checksum?
    A. It is used for congestion control.
    B. It cannot be all zeros.
    C. It is used by some Internet worms to hide their propagation.
    D. It is computed based on the IP pseudo-header.
    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    The method used to compute the checksum is defined in RFC 768:
    “Checksum is the 16-bit one’s complement of the one’s complement sum of a pseudo
    header of information from the IP header, the UDP header, and the data, padded with zero
    octets at the end (if necessary) to make a multiple of two octets.”
    In other words, all 16-bit words are summed using one’s complement arithmetic. Add the
    16-bit values up. Each time a carry-out (17th bit) is produced, swing that bit around and
    add it back into the least significant bit. The sum is then one’s complemented to yield the
    value of the UDP checksum field.
    If the checksum calculation results in the value zero (all 16 bits 0) it should be sent as the
    one’s complement (all 1s).

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    Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
    Exam Code: 200-105
    Total Questions: 204 Q&As
    Last Updated: Apr 22, 2017
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    QUESTION 49
    When attempting the BlackBerry Desktop Manager synchronization process, the following error message is displayed: enable to write or update application data Which of the following best describes the cause of this error message? (Choose one.)
    A. The user has attempted to synchronize with an unsupported application
    B. An organizer data (PIM) item has reached its maximum amount of records
    C. The BlackBerry device wireless radio has lost the service providers signal
    D. The BlackBerry device battery does not have sufficient battery power to complete the synchronization operation
    E. The BlackBerry device internal memory is full

    Correct Answer: E

     
    QUESTION 50
    Which of the following occurs after the BlackBerry device user selects Send on the BlackBerry device? (Choose one.)
    A. The email message is compressed and sent over the wireless network
    B. The email message is encrypted and compressed using a private key
    C. The email message is encrypted and sent over the wireless network
    D. The email message is compressed and encrypted using a private key
    E. The email message is sent over the wireless network using a BlackBerry Enterprise Server key

    Correct Answer: D
    QUESTION 51
    A BlackBerry device user is reporting that the icon for their recently setup BlackBerry Internet Service email has disappeared. Which three of the following may be the cause? (Choose three.)
    A. The user BlackBerry Internet Service email account has become invalid and must be reintegrated
    B. The user has the SMS and Email Inbox option set to Separate instead of Combined in General Options
    C. The user has changed themes, and the new theme has an icon for the BlackBerry Internet Service that is not recognized
    D. The icon for the BlackBerry Internet Service email account has become hidden
    E. Icons were removed during a failed synchronization attempt with BlackBerry Desktop Manager

    Correct Answer: ACD
    QUESTION 52
    Which two of the following features are configured through the Email Settings application in BlackBerry Desktop Manager? (Choose two.)
    A. Wireless message reconciliation
    B. Folder redirection
    C. Calendar reconciliation
    D. Calendar redirection
    E. Message redirection

    Correct Answer: BE

     

     

    QUESTION 53
    Which two of the following methods will remove the IT Policy from a decommissioned BlackBerry device? (Choose two.)
    A. Performing a hard reset on the BlackBerry device
    B. Using Loader.EXE to use the /resettofactory switch
    C. Removing the user from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
    D. Use the application loader tool to reload the BlackBerry Device Software
    E. Using the Remote Wipe Reset to Factory Defaults IT policy

    Correct Answer: BE

     

     

    QUESTION 54
    Which three of the following Service Statistics are available in the Advanced Settings component in BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager? (Choose three.)
    A. Messages deleted
    B. Messages sent
    C. Last message forwarded
    D. Messages pending
    E. Messages filtered

    Correct Answer: BDE  200-105 pdf

     

     

    QUESTION 55
    Which two of the following scenarios would cause a BlackBerry device to be unable to receive, but still able to send email messages? (Choose two.)
    A. The BlackBerry device user account does not have the Send As permission on their Active Directory User Object
    B. Redirection has been disabled on the user BlackBerry Enterprise Server user account Redirection has been disabled on the user? BlackBerry Enterprise Server user account
    C. The service provider has not provisioned the BlackBerry device for bi-directional data flow
    D. The email messages contain attachments that are not supported by the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
    E. The email message database is corrupt and unable to display new email messages

    Correct Answer: BE
    QUESTION 56
    What is the first thing that the BlackBerry device will display once it is able to send and receive email messages during the wireless enterprise activation? (Choose one.)
    A. Activation complete
    B. Verifying encryption
    C. Synchronizing service Desktop
    D. (Users email address) is now enabled
    E. Activating

    Correct Answer: D

     

     

    QUESTION 57
    When inquiring about a fairly recent version of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server, how can a support representative most effectively limit the results of a search in the BTSC? (Choose two.)
    A. Search Top Results since any search yielding so many results must be a top issue
    B. Try an Advanced Search and limit the published dates
    C. Try an Advanced Search and reduce the number of results returned
    D. Use more specific search terms, including full version numbers
    E. Use more general terms and avoid specific versions
    Correct Answer: BD
    QUESTION 58
    Within the properties of a given Desktop service book, which field denotes the BlackBerry Enterprise Server that the BlackBerry device has been activated on? (Choose one.)
    A. DSID
    B. UID
    C. CID
    D. Gateway IP
    E. User ID

    Correct Answer: B

     

     

    QUESTION 59
    Which service book is required for wireless calendar synchronization? (Choose one.)
    A. Desktop[CMIME]
    B. Desktop[CICAL]
    C. Desktop[CALSYNC]
    D. Desktop[IPPP]
    E. Desktop[SYNC]

    Correct Answer: B

     
    QUESTION 60
    At the mid-point of the synchronization process, a BlackBerry device user receives the following error message: enable to read application data. What are two possible causes for this error? (Choose two.)
    A. Anti-virus software is blocking specific contact items from transferring to the computer
    B. A contact with invalid characters was encountered
    C. A contact with no First name, Last name or Company Name was encountered
    D. The address book on the computer has reached its item limit
    E. The BlackBerry Desktop Manager synchronization service has stopped working

    Correct Answer: BC

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    Exam Code: 1Z0-051
    Exam Name: Oracle Database: SQL Fundamentals I
    Updated: Apr 13, 2017
    Q&As: 292

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    Teststarter Latest and Most Accurate Oracle 1Z0-051 Dumps Exam Q&As 

    QUESTION 3
    Here is the structure and data of the CUST_TRANS table:
    Exhibit:

    1z0-051 dumps

    Dates are stored in the default date format dd-mm-rr in the CUST_TRANS table. Which three SQL
    statements would execute successfully? (Choose three.)
    A. SELECT transdate + ’10’ FROM cust_trans;
    B. SELECT * FROM cust_trans WHERE transdate = ’01-01-07′;
    C. SELECT transamt FROM cust_trans WHERE custno > ’11’;
    D. SELECT * FROM cust_trans WHERE transdate=’01-JANUARY-07′;
    E. SELECT custno + ‘A’ FROM cust_trans WHERE transamt > 2000;
    Correct Answer: ACD
    Explanation
    Explanation/Reference:

     

     

    QUESTION 4
    See the Exhibit and examine the structure and data in the INVOICE table:
    Exhibit:

    1z0-051 dumps

    Which two SQL statements would executes successfully? (Choose two.)

    A. SELECT MAX(inv_date),MIN(cust_id) FROM invoice;
    B. SELECT MAX(AVG(SYSDATE – inv_date)) FROM invoice;
    C. SELECT (AVG(inv_date) FROM invoice;
    D. SELECT AVG(inv_date – SYSDATE),AVG(inv_amt) FROM invoice;
    Correct Answer: AD
    Explanation
    Explanation/Reference:

     

     

    QUESTION 5
    See the Exhibit and examine the structure of the CUSTOMERS table:

    1z0-051 dumps

    Using the CUSTOMERS table, you need to generate a report that shown the average credit limit for
    customers in WASHINGTON and NEW YORK.
    Which SQL statement would produce the required result?
    A. SELECT cust_city, AVG(cust_credit_limit)
    FROM customers
    WHERE cust_city IN (‘WASHINGTON’,’NEW YORK’)
    GROUP BY cust_credit_limit, cust_city;
    B. SELECT cust_city, AVG(cust_credit_limit)
    FROM customers
    WHERE cust_city IN (‘WASHINGTON’,’NEW YORK’)
    GROUP BY cust_city,cust_credit_limit;
    C. SELECT cust_city, AVG(cust_credit_limit)
    FROM customers
    WHERE cust_city IN (‘WASHINGTON’,’NEW YORK’)
    GROUP BY cust_city;

    D. SELECT cust_city, AVG(NVL(cust_credit_limit,0))
    FROM customers
    WHERE cust_city IN (‘WASHINGTON’,’NEW YORK’);
    Correct Answer: C
    Explanation
    Explanation/Reference:
    Explanation:1Z0-051 dumps
    Creating Groups of Data: GROUP BY Clause Syntax
    You can use the GROUP BY clause to divide the rows in a table into groups. You can then use the group
    functions to return summary information for each group.
    In the syntax:
    group_by_expression Specifies the columns whose values determine the basis for grouping rows
    Guidelines
    · If you include a group function in a SELECT clause, you cannot select individual results as well, unless
    the individual column appears in the GROUP BY clause. You receive an error message if you fail to
    include the column list in the GROUP BY clause. · Using a WHERE clause, you can exclude rows before
    dividing them into groups.
    · You must include the columns in the GROUP BY clause.
    · You cannot use a column alias in the GROUP BY clause.

     

     

    QUESTION 6
    Where can sub queries be used? (Choose all that apply)
    A. field names in the SELECT statement
    B. the FROM clause in the SELECT statement
    C. the HAVING clause in the SELECT statement
    D. the GROUP BY clause in the SELECT statement
    E. the WHERE clause in only the SELECT statement
    F. the WHERE clause in SELECT as well as all DML statements
    Correct Answer: ABCF
    Explanation
    Explanation/Reference:
    Explanation:
    SUBQUERIES can be used in the SELECT list and in the FROM, WHERE, and HAVING clauses of a
    query.
    A subquery can have any of the usual clauses for selection and projection. The following are required
    clauses:
    A SELECT list
    A FROM clause
    The following are optional clauses:
    WHERE
    GROUP BY
    HAVING
    The subquery (or subqueries) within a statement must be executed before the parent query that calls it, in
    order that the results of the subquery can be passed to the parent.

     

     

    QUESTION 7
    Evaluate the following SQL statement:

    1z0-051 dumps

    Which statement is true regarding the outcome of the above query?
    A. It produces an error because the ORDER BY clause should appear only at the end of a compound
    query-that is, with the last SELECT statement
    B. It executes successfully and displays rows in the descending order of PROMO_CATEGORY
    C. It executes successfully but ignores the ORDER BY clause because it is not located at the end of the
    compound statement

    D. It produces an error because positional notation cannot be used in the ORDER BY clause with SET
    operators
    Correct Answer: A
    Explanation
    Explanation/Reference:
    Explanation:
    Using the ORDER BY Clause in Set Operations
    The ORDER BY clause can appear only once at the end of the compound query. Component queries
    cannot have individual ORDER BY clauses. The ORDER BY clause recognizes only the columns of the
    first SELECT query. By default, the first column of the first SELECT query is used to sort the output in an
    ascending order.

     

     

    QUESTION 8
    Examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES and NEW_EMPLOYEES tables:

    1z0-051 dumps

    Which MERGE statement is valid?
    A. MERGE INTO new_employees c
    USING employees e
    ON (c.employee_id = e.employee_id)
    WHEN MATCHED THEN
    UPDATE SET
    B. name = e.first_name ||’,’|| e.last_name
    WHEN NOT MATCHED THEN
    INSERT
    value
    S(e.employee_id, e.first_name ||’,
    ‘||e.last_name);
    C. MERGE new_employees c
    USING employees e
    ON (c.employee_id = e.employee_id)
    WHEN EXISTS THEN
    UPDATE SET
    D. name = e.first_name ||’,’|| e.last_name
    WHEN NOT MATCHED THEN INSERT
    valueS(e.employee_id, e.first_name ||’,
    ‘||e.last_name);
    E. MERGE INTO new_employees cUSING employees e
    ON (c.employee_id = e.employee_id)
    WHEN EXISTS THEN
    UPDATE SET
    F. name = e.first_name ||’,’|| e.last_name
    WHEN NOT MATCHED THEN
    INSERT
    value
    S(e.employee_id, e.first_name ||’,
    ‘||e.last_name);
    G. MERGE new_employees c
    FROM employees e ON (c.employee_id = e.employee_id)
    WHEN MATCHED THEN
    UPDATE SET
    H. name = e.first_name ||’,’|| e.last_name
    WHEN NOT MATCHED THEN
    INSERT INTO
    new_employees valueS(e.employee_id, e.first_name ||’,
    ‘||e.last_name);
    Correct Answer: A
    Explanation
    Explanation/Reference:
    Explanation: this is the correct MERGE statement syntax
    Incorrect answer:
    B it should MERGE INTO table_name
    C it should be WHEN MATCHED THEN
    D it should MERGE INTO table_name
    Refer: Introduction to Oracle9i: SQL, Oracle University Study Guide, 8-29

     

     

     

    QUESTION 9
    Which view should a user query to display the columns associated with the constraints on a table owned
    by the user?
    A. USER_CONSTRAINTS
    B. USER_OBJECTS
    C. ALL_CONSTRAINTS
    D. USER_CONS_COLUMNS
    E. USER_COLUMNS
    Correct Answer: D
    Explanation
    Explanation/Reference:
    Explanation: view the columns associated with the constraint names in the USER_CONS_COLUMNS
    view.
    Incorrect answer:
    A table to view all constraints definition and names
    B show all object name belong to user
    C does not display column associated
    E no such view
    Refer: Introduction to Oracle9i: SQL, Oracle University Study Guide, 10-25

     

     

    QUESTION 15
    The COMMISSION column shows the monthly commission earned by the employee.
    Exhibit

    C2090-930 exam

    Which two tasks would require sub queries or joins in order to be performed in a single step? (Choose
    two.)
    A. listing the employees who earn the same amount of commission as employee 3
    B. finding the total commission earned by the employees in department 10
    C. finding the number of employees who earn a commission that is higher than the average commission
    of the company
    D. listing the departments whose average commission is more that 600
    E. listing the employees who do not earn commission and who are working for department 20 in
    descending order of the employee ID
    F. listing the employees whose annual commission is more than 6000
    Correct Answer: AC
    Explanation  1Z0-051 dumps

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    A. 192.168.1.8/29
    B. 192.168.1.32/27
    C. 192.168.1.40/29
    D. 192.168.1.16/28
    E. 192.168.1.48/29

    Answer: C

    Question:- 2
    If a host experiences intermittent issues that relate to congestion within a network while remaining connected, what could cause congestion on this LAN?

    A. half-duplex operation
    B. broadcast storms
    C. network segmentation
    D. multicasting

    Answer: B

    Question:- 3
    Which IP addresses are valid for hosts belonging to the 10.1.160.0/20 subnet? (Choose three.)

    A. 10.1.168.0
    B. 10.1.176.1
    C. 10.1.174.255
    D. 10.1.160.255
    E. 10.1.160.0
    F. 10.1.175.255

    Answer: A,C,D

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    How can you ensure that only the MAC address of a server is allowed by switch port Fa0/1?

    A. Configure port Fa0/1 to accept connections only from the static IP address of the server.
    B. Configure the server MAC address as a static entry of port security.
    C. Use a proprietary connector type on Fa0/1 that is incomputable with other host connectors.
    D. Bind the IP address of the server to its MAC address on the switch to prevent other hosts from spoofing the server IP address.

    Answer: B   70-470 exam

    Question:- 5
    Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?

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    B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
    C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
    D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces

    Answer: B

    Question:- 6
    An administrator has connected devices to a switch and, for security reasons, wants the dynamically learned MAC addresses from the address table added to the running configuration. What must be done to accomplish this?

    A. Enable port security and use the keyword sticky.
    B. Set the switchport mode to trunk and save the running configuration.
    C. Use the switchport protected command to have the MAC addresses added to the configuration.
    D. Use the no switchport port-security command to allow MAC addresses to be added to the configuration.

    Answer: A

    Question:- 7
    What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?

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    B. Only the enable secret password will be encrypted.
    C. Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted.
    D. It will encrypt the secret password and remove the enable secret password from the configuration.
    E. It will encrypt all current and future passwords.

    Answer: E

    Question:- 8
    The ip helper-address command does what?

    A. assigns an IP address to a host
    B. resolves an IP address from a DNS server
    C. relays a DHCP request across networks
    D. resolves an IP address overlapping issue

    Answer: C

    Question:-  9
    Which router command will configure an interface with the IP address 10.10.80.1/19?

    A. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1/19
    B. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.0.0
    C. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.255.0
    D. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.224.0
    E. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.240.0
    F. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.255.240

    Answer: D

    Question:- 10
    On a live network, which commands will verify the operational status of router interfaces? (Choose two.)

    A. Router# show interfaces
    B. Router# show ip protocols
    C. Router# debug interface
    D. Router# show ip interface brief
    E. Router# show start

    Answer: A,D

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    Q: Is there any other way I can be CCNA 200-120 certified?

    A: Yes. Take the two exams ICND1 100-101 and ICND2 200-101. You will earn CCENT when you pass ICND1 100-101, then pass ICND 200-101 to earn CCNA.

    Q: How can I take the exam?

    A: First, at https://www.pass4itsure.com/200-120.html Choose exam code 200-120. Schedule an exam. Find the nearest and most convenient test center for you. And choose the date of exam.

    Q: Can I register and pay directly at the test center?

    A: Yes and yes. You can register and pay at the test center. In fact, if you are a newbie and in doubt of yourself it is better to register directly at test centers because they will guide you every step of the way.

    Q: Can I create an account at Pearson Vue but pay cash at test center?

    A: Yes and yes. You can register online at home and pay cash at the test center. They will search your name on Pearson Vue database, asked you to verify if that is the account you’ve made and they will pay using their credit card to pay for the exam.

    Q: How much is the exam fee?

    A: $295 US Dollars. If you pay directly at test center they will asked small additional fee.

    Q: Can I pay using credit card of other people?

    A: Yes.

    Q: Do I need to bring my identification card at the exam?

    A: Yes. Bring 2 identification card. Government ID to be sure. If in doubt whether your ID is valid, ask the test center. The name on your ID must be the same on Pearson Vue you registered. Make sure that your ID is valid because you will not be able to take the exam and you cannot refund or reschedule the exam on the day of your scheduled exam.

    Q: How many questions are there in the exam.

    A: 50-60 questions.

    Q: How long is the exam?

    A: 90 minutes and an additional minutes if your native language is not English. I think additional minutes depends on your geographical location. Mine was 1 hour 43 minutes or 103 minutes.

    Q: What is the passing score of the exam?

    A:  Passing score is 825/1000 points.

    Q: How much points per question?

    A: No official statement from Cisco. Good guess is 10-15 points.

    Q: How much points per lab?

    A: No official statement from Cisco. But through experience and surveys, it is 70 to 100 points.

    Q: Do I get some points when I miss a command on a lab sim?

    A: Yes. You will have few points.

    Q: Do I get points on a lab sim with 5 questions but only got 3 correct answers?

    A: Yes. You will have points on each correct answer.

    Q: What lab questions will appear on the exam?

    A: ACL 1, ACL 2 and EIGRP Lab. It is rare but sometimes there is an additional random lab. To be safe, study and practice all labs.  See links below

    Q: Can I use shortcut commands like “en” instead of “enable” and “Tab” key?

    A: Yes, but few said the simulator doesn’t accept shortcut commands and “Tab” key all the time, maybe there is a bug. So to be safe input the full commands. You can use “?” to guide you for the complete commands.

    Q: Can I go back to change my answers in the exam?

    A: No. You can only go forward  070-480 exam

    pass4itsure 200-120 Question Answer

    A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port? 

    A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
    B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
    C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
    D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
    E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.

    Answer: C      

     

    Refer to the exhibit.

    200-120 Dumps

    After HostA pings HostB, which entry will be in the ARP cache of HostA to support this transmission?

     

    200-120 Dumps

    Exhibit A
    Exhibit B
    Exhibit C
    Exhibit D
    Exhibit E
    Exhibit F

    Answer: A

     

    A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation? 

    A. application
    B. presentation
    C. session
    D. transport
    E. internet
    F. data link

    Answer: A    

    Below are the links of videos, dumps, lab simulations and tools essential for studying and eventually passing the CCNA 200-120 pdf examination. Just click for the links: http://www.newpass4sure.com/2016-latest-updated-200-120-exam.html

    More questions are available at http://www.pass4sureshop.com/100-pass-cisco-350-018-dumps.html

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