[UPDATE April-4] New Updated Microsoft 70-494 Dumps PDF With High Quality Youtube Training 249Q Free Share (1-15)

Will I get the MCP MCSD certification after completing the Recertification for MCSD: Web Applications exam? New Updated Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-494 Dumps PDF, Real Microsoft 70-494 Dumps Exam With High Quality, We Help You Pass Recertification for MCSD: Web Applications – pass4itsure 70-494 dumps (249Q free share)

Do you offer free after-sale services?

Yes. We provide 7/24 customer help and information on a wide range of issues. Our pass4itsure devote themselves for years to develop the 70-698 practice tests to help more people who want to have a better development in IT field to pass 70-698 practice tests. Our service is professional and confidential and your issues will be replied within 12 hous. Feel free to send us any questions and we always try our best to keeping our Customers Satisfied.

The computer-based, multiple-choice exam tests the candidate’s knowledge of how to prepare and manage Recertification for MCSD: Web Applications. It is a proctored exam offered by Cisco. Although there are so many exam materials about Microsoft MCSD 70-698 dumps practice tests, the 70-698 dumps  practice tests developed by our pass4itsure professionals is the most reliable software. This exam is available in Japanese and English. Candidates connected with IT field can apply for 70-494 dumps Microsoft certification exams.

Do you provide free updates?

Yes, once there are some changes on 70-494 exam, we will update the study materials timely to make sure that our customer can download the latest edition. Practice has proved that almost all those who have used the software we provide have successfully passed the 70-698 practice tests.  The updates are provided free for 120 days.

  • 6000+ Exam Q&As
  • 6000+ Free Demo
  • 98% Pass Rate
  • 100% Money Back Guarantee
  • 365 Days Free Update
  • 5 Years Working Experience

[Update April Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-494 PDF Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1P8eWrxIvmnYd9twR8u6pur4AXJLBm3ph

[Update April Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-534 PDF Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWdmxvVW43RmxVM2M

“Recertification for MCSD: Web Applications″, also known as 70-494 exam, is a MCP, MCSD certification. With the complete collection of questions and answers, Pass4itsure has assembled to take you through questions and answers to your 70-494 exam preparation. Many of them just use spare time preparing for Microsoft MCSD 70-494 dumps practice tests Microsoft exam, and they are surprised to pass the certificated exam. In the Microsoft 70-494 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in Recertification for MCSD: Web Applications helping to ready you for your successful Microsoft MCP, MCSD certification and this is a Recertification for MCSD: Web Applications technology.

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-494 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-15)

QUESTION 1
You are developing a WCF service. A new service instance must be created for each client request. You need to choose an instancing mode.
Which instancing mode should you use?
A. Single
B. PerRequest
C. PerCall
D. Multiple
E. PerSession
70-494 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 2
You are developing a WCF service that compares several data sources. The service takes a long time to complete. The service must meet the following requirements: The client must be able to continue processing while the service is running. The service must initiate communication with the client application when processing is complete. You need to choose a message pattern to meet the requirements. Which message pattern should you choose?
A. One Way
B. Streaming
C. Duplex
D. Request/Reply
70-494 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 3
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application that reads and writes data from a SQL Server database. You need to maintain data integrity including retrieving identical sets across reads in all situations that use transactions. Which isolation level should you use?
A. Repeatable
B. Serializable
C. ReadUncommitted
D. ReadCommitted
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: REPEATABLE READ
Specifies that statements cannot read data that has been modified but not yet committed by other transactions and that no other transactions can modify data that has been read by the current transaction until the current transaction completes.

QUESTION 4
You develop an ASP.NET MVC application that is secured by using SSL. You are ready to deploy the application to production. The deployment package must include the installation of the SSL certificate. You need to configure the deployment package to meet the requirement. What should you do?
A. Create a web publish pipeline target file with a custom web deploy target.
B. In the Package/Publish settings of the project, select the All Files in this project option.
C. Extend the CopyAllFilesToSingleFolder target in the project file.
D. In the Build Events settings of the project, configure a pre-build event to include the SSL certificate.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 5
You are developing a .NET application that uses the HttpClient type to call an ASP.NET Web API application. The API call returns a list of customers in JSON format and logs the results. The URI for the API call is in a variable named address. You need to make the API call without blocking. Which code segment should you use?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
70-494 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Example:
// Create an HttpClient instance
11: HttpClient client = new HttpClient();
12:
13: // Send a request asynchronously continue when complete
14: client.GetAsync(_address).ContinueWith(
15: (requestTask) =>
16: {
17: // Get HTTP response from completed task.
18: HttpResponseMessage response = requestTask.Result;
19:
20: // Check that response was successful or throw exception
21: response.EnsureSuccessStatusCode();
22:
23: // Read response asynchronously as JsonValue and write out top facts for each country
24: response.Content.ReadAsAsync().ContinueWith(
25: (readTask) =>

QUESTION 6
You are preparing to develop a set of libraries for a company. The libraries must be shared across the company. You need to create a remote NuGet feed that exposes the libraries.What should you do? (Each answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Install the NuGet.Feed Package.
B. Install the NuGet.Server Package.
C. Configure the Packages folder located in the system.webserver section of the web application’s Web.config.
D. Create a new Empty Web Site in Visual Studio 2012.
E. Configure the Packages folder located in the appSettings section of the web application’s Web.config.
F. Add packages to the Packages folder.
G. Create a new Empty Web Application in Visual Studio 2012.
70-494 pdf Correct Answer: BEFG
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Explanation/Reference:
70-494 dumps

QUESTION 7
You are designing an ASP.NET Web API application. You need to select an HTTP verb to allow blog administrators to moderate a comment.
Which HTTP verb should you use?
A. GET
B. POST
C. DELETE
D. PUT
70-494 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 8
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application that reads and writes data from a SQL Server database. You need to prevent the application from reading data that is locked by other transactions. You also need to prevent exclusive range locks. Which isolation level should you use?
A. ReadCommitted
B. Serializable
C. Repeatable
D. ReadUncommitted
70-494 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 9
You are developing an application in Visual Studio 2012 to display student information. The application contains the following Entity Framework model.
70-494 dumps
The application contains a WCF data service named DirectoryService.svc. You need to create a query expression to display all of the grades for students whose first name is “John” How should you build the expression?
A. http://localhost:54946/DirectoryService.svc/Students?$filter=FirstName eq ‘John’ &$expand=Grades
B. http://localhost:54946/DirectoryService.svc/Students?$filter=FirstName eq ‘John’/Grades
C. http://localhost:54946/DirectoryService.svc/Students?$filter=FirstName = ‘John’ &$expand=Grades
D. http://localhost:54946/DirectoryService.svc/Grades/Students?$filter=FirstName eq ‘John’
70-494 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 10
You are preparing to develop a set of libraries that uses large data sets. The libraries must be shared across an organization and distributed to several servers. You need to create a remote NuGet feed that exposes the libraries for developer use. What should you do? (Each answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Add packages to the Packages folder.
B. Create a new Empty Web Application in Visual Studio.
C. Configure the Packages folder located in the appSettings section of the web application’s Web.config.
D. Install the NuGet.DataFeed Package.
E. Install the NuGet.Server Package.
F. Create a new Empty Web Site in Visual Studio.
Correct Answer: ABCE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Creating Remote Feeds
You can host a remote (or internal) feed on a server that runs IIS. Step 1 (B): Create a new Empty Web Application in Visual Studio Step 2 (E): Install the NuGet.Server Package
Step 3 (C): Configure the Packages folder
Step 4 (A): Add Packages to the Packages folder
Step 5: Deploy and run your brand new Package Feed!
Reference: Hosting Your Own NuGet Feeds

QUESTION 11
You are developing a WCF service. A new service instance must be created for each client session. You need to choose an instancing mode.
Which instance mode should you use?
A. PerCall
B. Single
C. Multiple
D. PerSession
E. PerRequest
70-494 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 12
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application. Deployment administrators do not have access to Visual Studio 2102, but will have the elevated permissions required to deploy the application to the servers. You need to select a deployment tool for use by the deployment administrators.
Which tool should you use?
A. Publish Web Site Tool
B. Web Deployment Package
C. One-Click Publish
D. Deployment Package Editor
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 13
You are planning to migrate websites from IIS 6 to IIS 7.5. You do not have access to SSH or a VPN. You need to select a deployment tool to securely migrate the websites. Which tool should you use?
A. RoboCopy
B. Web Deploy
C. Microsoft command-line FTP
D. xCopy
70-494 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 14
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC web application that contains the following HTML. You also have an ASP.NET Web API application that contains a call for retrieving customers. You must send and retrieve the data in the most compact format possible. You need to update the HTML for the customers table to contain data from the Web API application. Which script segment should you use?
70-494 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 15
DRAG DROP
You are developing an ASP.NET Web API for a home inventory management system. You need to limit access to users with IP addresses based only in the United States. You have the following code:
70-494 dumps
Which code segments should you include in Target 1 and Target 2 to complete the code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct targets in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
70-494 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-494 dumps

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

70-494 dumps
70-494 dumps
70-494 dumps
70-494 dumps
Visual Studio and .NET

  • 70-490: Recertification for MCSD: Windows Store Apps Using HTML5
  • 70-491: Recertification for MCSD: Windows Store Apps Using C#
  • 70-494: Recertification for MCSD: Web Applications
  • 70-499: Recertification for MCSD: Application Lifecycle Management

Pass4itsure is best website that providing Microsoft 70-494 dumps practice questions with high quality on the Internet.

pass4itsure 70-494 dumps

Before appearing in the Microsoft 70 494 test, these professionals can take the ASP.NET MVC 70-494 dumps at pass4itsure, so that they can know the format of Microsoft certification exams to do better in theirs. However, the result always depends on the preparation of Microsoft 70-494 exam questions and nothing else. With the learning information and guidance of Pass4itsure, you can through Microsoft 70-494 exam questions the first time.

So it has very high value. The dumps not only can be used to prepare for IT certification exam, also can be used as a tool to develop your skills. This is the reason why MCSD 70-494 exam dumps are available all around the internet to help Recertification for MCSD: Web Applications test experts with the preparation of their 70-494 question and answers so that there are not many chances for them to fail in these exams. In addition, if you want to know more knowledge about your exam, pass4itsure 70-494 dumps exam can satisfy your demands.

 70-494 dumps

Pass4itsure New Updated Microsoft 70-494 Dumps PDF Recertification for MCSD: Web Applications Exam With High Quality Youtube Training. Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-494 Dumps Exam Youtube Free Online Test Here:

oracl23

[UPDATE February-9] Best Quality Cisco 300-135 Dumps PDF CCNP Routing and Switching Certification Is Omnipresent In Today’s World 160Q Free Share (46-51)

Anyone done the CCDP 300-135 dumps? The Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (300-135 TSHOOT) exam is a 120 minutes (15-25 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCNP Routing and Switching certification. Best quality Cisco 300-135 dumps pdf CCNP Routing and Switching certification is omnipresent in today’s world. “Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 300-135 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 300-135 exam. You can quickly climb the hierarchy levels in your respective organization, once you pass the test. Cisco is no doubt a leading in Information technology and getting certified by them with passing this https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-135.html dumps test will guarantee your success in your field.

[Update February Pass4itsure 300-135 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWVjNzVmpXTDBzU00

[Update February Pass4itsure 200-310 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWajNRNzNfaDllX3M

300-135 dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-135 Dumps Exam Q&As(46-51)

QUESTION 46
A construction company is about to start a new project. It requires hiring a project manager for this project. Which of the following are the most important skills that a person must have to be selected as a project manager?
A. Problem solving
B. Team building and human resources
C. Leading
D. Communication
E. Negotiation and influential
300-135 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A good project manager must have all of the above mentioned skills. Out of these, the communication skills are the most important skills for a project manager. Communications skills are part of general management skills and are used to exchange information. Communication has many dimensions: Written and oral, listening, and speaking Internal (within the project) and external (customer, the media, the public) Formal (reports, briefings) and informal (memos, ad hoc conversations) Vertical (up and down the organization) and horizontal (with peers) Communication is the most important skill that a project manager must posses. It is the single most important characteristics of a top-class project manager. Project managers must communicate well in order to integrate and maximize the performance of team members. Oral and written communications are the backbone of every successful project. During different phases of a project, a project manager requires to communicate through different manners (for example, documentation, meeting updates, etc.) and he must ensure that the information communicated is explicit, clear, and complete. Answer options E, C, A, and B are incorrect. All these mentioned skills make a person a good project manager. Communication skills top the list. What are organizational skills? Organizational skills are part of management skills to organize various aspects of a project in order to complete it successfully. A good project manager uses these skills to successfully organize his meetings, as well as to keep documentations, quotes, contracts, etc., which can be fetched at any given moment. Organizational skills also include planning and time management skills. What are budgeting skills? Budgeting skills include the knowledge of finance and accounting principles. A project manager must possess these skills in order to perform cost estimates for project budgeting. Reading and understanding quotes, preparing purchase orders, and reconciling purchase invoices are all part of budgeting skills. In order to make the budget of a project, the project manager must have excellent budgeting skills. What are problem solving skills? Problem solving skills include the ability to define and analyze problems, and to take decisions in order to solve the problems by implementing those decisions. Every project manager must possess strong problem solving skills. Problem solving is a two-fold process: Defining the problem Taking a decision and then
implementing it A project manager is responsible for determining the best course of action to take in order to resolve the problem. What are negotiating and influencing skills? Negotiating skills includes demanding and convincing others for the rightful thing or act. A project manager needs this skill to negotiate on projects in almost every area such as scope definitions, budgets, contracts, resource assignments, schedules, etc. Influencing skills include the convincing power of a person. It is an ability to change minds and the course of events. A good project manager requires these skills to utilize them in all areas of project management.

QUESTION 47
Which of the following individuals has a management role in a core business area, such as research and development, design, manufacturing, provisioning, testing, or maintenance?
A. Functional manager
B. Operations manager
C. Project manager
D. Seller
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The role of operations manager is to perform various management roles in a core business area, such as research and development, design, manufacturing, provisioning, testing, or maintenance. The operations manager directly deals with constructing and maintaining the saleable products or services of the enterprise. Answer option C is incorrect. A project manager is an expert in the field of project management. He is responsible for the entire project from inception to completion. The project manager leads the team and helps negotiate the multiple relationships within any project whether with clients, team members, firm principals or any variety of partners and functions as the hub of a project. Answer option A is incorrect. The
role of a functional manager is to perform various management roles within an administrative or functional area of the business, such as human resources, finance, accounting, or procurement. He is assigned his own permanent staff to carry out the ongoing work. He should have a clear directive to manage all tasks within his functional area of responsibility. Answer option D is incorrect. Seller is also known as a vendor, supplier or contractor. They are external company’s elements that enter into a contractual agreement to provide components or services necessary for the project.

QUESTION 48
John is the project manager for his organization. He has created a status dashboard for his stakeholders. What is a status dashboard?
A. It is a report that details the current status of risks and issues.
B. It is a software application that allows stakeholders to view the project manager’s performance.
C. It is a web-based tool to inspect the project deliverables for performance.
D. It is a report that reflects the overall performance of scope, schedule, quality, cost, or other project performance metrics.
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Of all the choices, the best explanation is that a dashboard is a report for quick review of the project’s performance metrics. While there are some software solutions, they still focus on the key performance criteria of the project. Answer option C is incorrect. This answer defines the definition of quality control, not the dashboard’s review of project performance. Answer option B is incorrect. Dashboards focus on the performance of the project’s key performance factors, not the project manager. Answer option A is incorrect. A status report could include the details of the project’s risks and issues, but usually not the dashboard.

QUESTION 49
You have been hired as a project manager for Tech Perfect Inc. You are studying the documentation of planning of a project. The documentation states that there are twenty-five stakeholders with the project. What will be the number of communication channels for the project?
A. 300
B. 50
C. 600
D. 25
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
According to the question, the project has twenty-five stakeholders. Communication channels are paths of communication with stakeholders in a project. The number of communication channels shows the complexity of a project’s communication and can be derived through the formula shown below: Total Number of Communication Channels = n (n-1)/2 where, n is the number of stakeholders. Hence, a project
  having five stakeholders will have ten communication channels. Putting the value of the number of stake holder in the formula will provide the number of communication channels: Number of communication channel = (n (n-1)) / 2 = (25 (25-1)) / 2 = (25 x 24) / 2 = 600 / 2 = 300 Who are project stakeholders?
Project stakeholders are those entities within or without an organization, which: Sponsor a project or, Have an interest or a gain upon a successful completion of a project. Examples of project stakeholders include the customer, the user group, the project manager, the development team, the testers, etc. Stakeholders are anyone who has an interest in the project. Project stakeholders are individuals and organizations that are actively involved in the project, or whose interests may be affected as a result of project execution or project completion. They may also exert influence over the project’s objectives and outcomes. The project management team must identify the stakeholders, determine their requirements and expectations, and, to the extent possible, manage their influence in relation to the requirements to ensure a successful project.

QUESTION 50
You are the project manager of the GHY Project. This project is scheduled to last for one year and has a BAC of $4,500,000. You are currently 45 percent complete with this project, though you are supposed to be at your second milestone which accounts for half of the project completion. There have been some errors in the project, which has caused you to spend $2,073,654. What is this project’s schedule variance?
A. -$48,654
B. 13 percent
C. -$225,000
D. 0.98
300-135 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
he schedule variance can be found by subtracting the planned value form the earned value. In this instance, it is $2,025,000 minus $2,250,000. SV = 2,025,000 – 2,250,000 = -225,000 Schedule variance (SV) is a measure of schedule performance on a project. The variance notifies that the schedule is ahead or behind what was planned for this period in time. The schedule variance is calculated based on the following formula: SV = Earned Value (EV) – Planned Value (PV) If the resulting schedule is negative, it indicates that the project is behind schedule. A value greater than 0 shows that the project is ahead of the planned schedule. A value of 0 indicates that the project is right on target. Answer option A is incorrect.
This is the cost variance for the project. Answer option B is incorrect. 13 percent is not a valid answer. Answer option D is incorrect. This is not a valid variance for this question; variances are typically negative numbers.

QUESTION 51
The figure given below demonstrates the communication model for a project. What role does the component E play in the communications model?
A. Static
B. Deterrent
C. Noise
D. Barrier
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Noise is anything that disrupts the communication method such as static on the telephone line, distracting conversations, or misunderstandings.
Answer option A is incorrect. Static is an example of noise, but it is not part of the communication model.
Answer option D is incorrect. A barrier to communication is when communication cannot happen under the present conditions.
Answer option B is incorrect. A deterrent is not a valid part of the communication model.

300-135 dumps

See What Our Customers Are Saying:

We at Pass4itsure are committed to our customer’s success. There are 50,000+ customers who used this preparation material for the preparation of various certification exams and this number of customers is enough for new candidates to trust in these products.Our Cisco 300-135 dumps are created with utmost care and professionalism. We utilize the experience and knowledge of a team of industry professionals from leading organizations all over the world.
300-135 dumps
“Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks”, also known as 300-135 exam, is a Cisco certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. This could happen with the help of Cisco 300-135 dumps reviews from our customers as they kept telling their requirements and sharing their personal experiences. Pass4itsure Cisco 300-135 dumps exam questions answers are updated (160 Q&As) are verified by experts. We can now claim to make you able to pass the test in the very first attempt. The associated certifications of 300-135 dumps is CCNP Routing and Switching. Passing the https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-135.html dumps exam and becoming a Cisco Certified is embarrassed by the leading companies in the IT world.

Read More Youtube: https://youtu.be/K2S9iwgc3BY
pass4itsure 300-135 dumps
Compared with other brands, Pass4itsure has up to dated exam information, affordable price, instant exam PDF files downloaded, error correction, unlimited install,etc. Such as Pass4itsure Best Quality Cisco 300-135 Dumps PDF Download, Real Cisco 300-135 Dumps PDF With New Discount, We Help You Pass Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks. Simple and Easy! To take advantage of the guarantee, simply contact Customer Support, requesting the exam you would like to claim. Pass4itsure guarantee insures your success otherwise get your MONEYBACK!

oracl23

[Update January-24] Up To Date Cisco 210-451 Dumps CLDFND Exam Vce & PDF Understanding Cisco Cloud Fundamentals Video Study Free Download 60Q&As

Why should you get Cisco 210-451 dumps? The Understanding Cisco Cloud Fundamentals (210-451 CLDFND) exam is a 90 Minutes (55 – 65 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCNA Cloud certification. Up to date Cisco 210-451 dumps CLDFND exam vce & pdf Understanding Cisco Cloud Fundamentals video study free download. “Understanding Cisco Cloud Fundamentals” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 210-451 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 210-451 exam. With our CCNA Cloud 210-451 exam dumps, no other vendor will be able to compare to Pass4itsure for quality 210-451 study guides. Pass4itsure CCNA Cloud https://www.pass4itsure.com/210-451.html exam dumps and questions are constantly being updated.

[Update January Pass4itsure 210-451 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWeFJLMDBQaDMyM1E

[Update January Pass4itsure 400-201 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWV2ZxQlJ2OGxkaXc

210-451 dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 210-451 Dumps Exam Q&As(6-46)

QUESTION 6
The Cisco InterCloud Fabric Director provides what functionality?
A. It is the single point of management and consumption for hybrid Cloud solutions.
B. It is the single point of management and consumption for public Cloud solutions.
C. It is the single point of management and consumption for private Cloud solutions.
D. It is a plugin of a Virtual Machine Manager to provide management and configuration for hybrid Cloud solutions.
210-451 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which two options are benefits of the Cisco InterCloud Solution? (Choose two.)
A. enforces standardization on a single hypervisor product
B. provides self service for hybrid resources
C. management of heterogeneous SAN solutions
D. secure connectivity between public and private Clouds
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
Which two options are characteristics of NAS? (Choose two.)
A. NAS provides block-based storage only.
B. NAS provides storage and filesystems.
C. NAS requires no authentication.
D. SMB is a protocol that can be used for NAS.

210-451 dumps Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
Which option is one essential characteristic of Cloud computing?
A. It must use virtualization.
B. It must provide load balancing services.
C. It must provide on-demand self service.
D. It must run on open source software.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which description of RAID6 is true?
A. block-level striping of data with double distributed parity
B. drive-level striping of data with double distributed parity
C. block-level striping of data with single distributed parity
D. block-level mirroring of data with double distributed parity
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Where is the Hypervisor installed?
A. Host operating system
B. Guest operating system
C. Control node
D. Computer node
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which API structure does Cisco UCS Manager support?
A. JSON
B. XML
C. RUBY
D. PERL
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which of the following situation would not impair audit objectivity?
A. An auditor is assigned to audit a business function that the auditor was responsible for nine months ago
B. An individual temporarily assigned to the internal audit activity because of the individual’sexpert knowledge in a particular business function assigned to audit an activity that theindividual was responsible for just prior to transferring to the internal audit activity
C. An auditor is assigned to perform a post-implementation review on a system for which the auditor participated in the design process
D. An auditor is assigned to perform a post-implementation review on a system for which the auditor performed a procedure review and made control recommendations prior to the system’s implementation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Internal auditing:
A. Is an independent, objective assurance and consulting activity designed to add value and improve anorganization’s operations
B. Is an independent, performance measurement and consulting activity designed to addValue and improve an organization’s operations
C. Helps an organization accomplish objectives by bringing a systematic, disciplinedApproach to evaluate but rarely improve the effectiveness of risk management, control and governance
D. Helps an organization accomplish objectives by bringing a targeted, disciplined approach to evaluate but rarely improve the effectiveness of risk management, control and governance
210-451 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
IIA’s code of ethics applies to __________ that provide internal auditing services:
A. Individuals
B. Entities
C. Individuals and entities
D. Individuals, entities and indirect authorities
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Internal auditors are expected to uphold the following principles:
A. Integrity, objectivity, competency
B. Integrity, objectivity, confidentiality, and competency
C. Integrity, objectivity, awareness and competency
D. Integrity, objectivity, entirety
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
“Internal auditors make a balanced assessment of all the relevant circumstances and are not unduly influenced by their own interests or by others in forming judgments.” This statement best explains one of the following principles:
A. Competency
B. Confidentiality

C. Objectivity
D. Integrity
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Internal auditors, engaging in activities that are illegal and discreditable to the profession of internal auditing or the organization, violate which of the following principles:
A. Objectivity
B. Awareness
C. Integrity
D. Competence
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which of the following statements is NOT related to competency principle of internal auditing? Internal auditors:
A. Shall continually improve their proficiency and effectiveness and quality of their services
B. Shall perform internal auditing services in accordance with the standards for the professional practice of internal auditing
C. Shall engage only in those services for which they have the necessary knowledge, skills and experience
D. Shall disclose all material facts known to them that, if not disclosed, may distort the reporting of activities under review
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
While performing consulting services internal auditors should specifically maintain:
A. Proficiency level
B. Objectivity
C. Competence
D. Confidentiality
210-451 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
All these statements elaborate purpose of standards EXCEPT:
A. Foster improved organizational processes and operations
B. Establish the basis for the evaluation of internal audit performance
C. Subvert the framework for performing and promoting broad range of value-added internal audit activities.
D. Delineate basic principles that represent the practice of internal auditing as it should be
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Nature of internal audit activities and quality criteria against which the performance of these services can be evaluated is best portrayed by:
A. Performance Standards
B. Attribute Standards
C. Implementation Standards

D. Evaluation Standards
210-451 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
There are multiple sets of attribute and performance standards:
A. False
B. True
C. True- In specific conditions
D. False- In specific conditions
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
All of the following phrases are used to express the auditor’s opinion EXCEPT:
A. Give a true and fair view
B. Present fairly, in all material respects
C. Timely and consistent opinion
D. Comprehensible and realistic view
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
The auditor should plan an audit with an attitude of:
A. Professional competence
B. Professional skepticism
C. Subject awareness
D. Opinion sharing
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
Which of the following is a limitation in an audit that affects auditors’ ability to detect material misstatements?
A. Scope of an audit
B. The use of testing
C. Over- generalization
D. Unidentifiable risks
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Reasonable assurance relates to the:
A. Audit planning process
B. Scope of the internal audit
C. End of the audit process
D. Whole audit process
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
The responsibility for preparing and presenting the audited financial statements is that of:
A. Internal auditor
B. Engagement client/ Management of the entity
C. Process owner
D. Auditing Agency
210-451 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
All these are disparities in public and private sector audits EXCEPT:
A. Objective and scope
B. Specific requirements of relevant regulation, ordinances or ministerial directives
C. Specific and broad range mandate in public sector
D. Reasonable assurance
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
Which one of the following is an internal control component?
A. Compliance control
B. Control activities
C. Financial Reporting Controls
D. Communication channels and network
210-451 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
Management must ___________ assess business risk and develop clearly defined control objectives:
A. Continually
B. Annually
C. Periodically
D. Weekly
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
Internal audit routinely reviews compliance risk and also should be reviewing business risk. The efforts to control both risk types will purely enhance:
A. The short-term profitability and viability of an organization
B. The long-term profitability and viability of an organization
C. Both short-term and long-term profitability and viability of an organization
D. None of these
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
Following statements define risk EXCEPT:
A. Organization has knowledge of facts constituting a dangerous condition
B. Organization voluntarily exposes itself to the danger
C. The element of assurance in an undertaking
D. Measured in terms of impact and likelihood
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 34
Strategic planning is the process of taking a long-term view of the organization, the longer the view, the greater the uncertainty of risks and opportunities. Such reservations can better be handled by:
A. Timely decisions
B. Flexible/ Adaptive plans and processes
C. Periodic risk assessments
D. Focusing on current period organizational activity
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
High-risk scores are those with an average of scores:
A. 3.75 or more
B. 3.25 or more
C. 4.25 or more
D. 4.00 or more
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
Low-risk scores are those with an average of scores:
A. 2.25 or less
B. 2.75 or less
C. 2.00 or less
D. 3.25 or less
210-451 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
Risks inherent in the management process are known as:
A. Residual risks
B. Long-term risks
C. Control risks
D. Strategic risks
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 38
Both residual and control risk need to be_______________ dealt with in project management.
A. Timely
B. Implicitly
C. Professionally
D. Explicitly
210-451 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 39
“Ongoing monitoring activities are conducted to periodically reassess risk and the effectiveness of control
risk,” is an objective of:
A. Risk Identification

B. Risk Measurement
C. Risk Management Process
D. Risk Prioritization
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 40
Faulty human judgments, misunderstanding of instructions, errors, management override, and collusion
and cost/benefit considerations are the limitations of:
A. Reasonable Assurance
B. Internal Control System
C. Risk Management
D. Compliance Control
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 41
Five internal control components are:
A. Control environment, Risk assessment, Control activities, Information and communication & Monitoring
B. Control environment, Risk assessment, and Operational control, Information and communication & Monitoring
C. Control environment, Risk Prioritization, Control activities, Information and communication & Monitoring
D. Control environment, Risk Prioritization, Control activities, Information and communication & Monitoring
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 42
Enterprise risk management encompasses all EXCEPT:
A. Aligning risk appetite and strategy
B. Enhancing risk responsibilities and decisions
C. Increasing Operational Surprises
D. Seizing Opportunities
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 43
Organization’s Objectives are described in three general categories:
A. Effectiveness of operations, Efficiency of strategic plans, Reliability of internal and external reporting
B. Effectiveness of operations, Efficiency of strategic plans, Reliability of internal and external reporting, compliance with applicable laws and regulations
C. Effectiveness and Efficiency of operations, Compliance with applicable laws and regulations, Monitoring and management control system
D. Effectiveness and Efficiency of operations, Reliability of internal and external reporting, Compliance
with applicable laws and regulations
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 44
The plans developed for the audit functions should be updated as circumstances dictate. Such specific types of plans include all EXCEPT:
A. Activity Reports
B. Target dates
C. Opportunities and threats

D. Staffing plans and financial budgets
210-451 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 45
Which one of the following statements is NOT the part of audit work schedule?
A. The extent and type of findings in the last audit
B. Loss of assets, errors and fraud
C. The availability of audit staff resources
D. Opportunities to achieve operations benefits
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 46
Risk is the probability that an event or action may adversely affect the organization or activity under review. In other words, risk is anything that can prevent an organization from achieving an objective. Major components of risk are as follows EXCEPT:
A. Non- Compliance with the laws, rules and regulations
B. An event or cause that can interfere with achieving the objective (e.g. What can go wrong?)
C. A probability or likelihood of occurrence
D. The negative consequences of not achieving the objective
210-451 exam Correct Answer: A

210-451 dumps

Our Pass4itsure CCNA Cloud 210-451 dumps exam  are not just questions and answers. “Understanding Cisco Cloud Fundamentals”, also known as 210-451 exam, is a Cisco certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Pass4itsure Cisco 210-451 dumps exam questions answers are updated (60 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of 210-451 dumps is CCNA Cloud. With many online exam resources for preparing for the 210-451 exam, you will notice when you read the below information that Pass4itsure is your premier source for your Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/210-451.html dumps exam.

Read More Youtube: https://youtu.be/22_cabYvM1w

oracl23

[Update December-25] New Release Cisco 100-105 Dumps ICND1 v3.0 Exam Video Questions And Answers With Accurate Answers

Why should someone do Cisco 100-105 dumps? The Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0) (100-105 ICND1) exam is a 90 Minutes (45-55 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCENT, CCNA Routing & Switching, CCDA, CCNA Security, CCNA Wireless certification. New release Cisco 100-105 dumps ICND1 v3.0 exam video questions and answers with accurate answers. “Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 100-105 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 100-105 exam.

Interactive practice test operates as a realistic simulation of the real Cisco Certified Network Associative Routing & Switching https://www.pass4itsure.com/100-105.html dumps certification exam. One time purchase you can get the 100-105 practice tests and PDF. Pass4itsure provides a totally secure platform for Cisco 100-105 exam.

[Update December Pass4itsure 100-105 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWeVQ5WUxjZG1Idnc

[Update December Pass4itsure 200-125 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWT2VSaUVoODRKR1k

100-105 dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 100-105 Dumps Exam Q&As:

Question No : 5 – (Topic 1)  Refer to the exhibit
100-105 dumps

Host A is sending a packet to Host B for the first time. What destination MAC address will Host A use in the ARP request?
A. 192.168.0.1
B. 172.16.0.50
C. 00-17-94-61-18-b0
D. 00-19-d3-2d-c3-b2
E. ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff
F. 255.255.255.255
100-105 exam 
Answer: E
Explanation:
For the initial communication, Host A will send a broadcast ARP (all F’s) to determine the correct address to use to reach the destination. ARP sends an Ethernet frame called an ARP request to every host on the shared link-layer legmen. The Ethernet header includes the source host MAC address and a destination address of all Fs representing a broadcast frame. The ARP request contains the sender’s MAC and IP address and the target (destination) IP address. 
Question No : 6 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit
100-105 dumps

What kind of cable should be used to make each connection that is identified by the numbers shown?
A.
1 – Ethernet Crossover cable
2 – Ethernet straight-through cable
3 – Fiber Optic cable
4 – Rollover cable
B.
1 – Ethernet straight-through cable
2 – Ethernet straight-through cable
3 – Serial cable
4 – Rollover cable
C.
1 – Ethernet rollover cable
2 – Ethernet crossover cable
3 – Serial cable
4 – Null-modem cable
D.
1 – Ethernet straight-through cable
2 – Ethernet Crossover cable
3 – Serial cable
4 – Rollover cable
E.
1 – Ethernet straight-through cable
2 – Ethernet Crossover cable
3 – Serial cable
4 – Ethernet Straight-through cable
Answer: B
Explanation:
When connecting a PC to a switch, a standard Ethernet straight through cable should be used. This same cable should also be used for switch to router connections. Generally speaking, crossover cables are only needed when connecting two like devices (PC-PC, switch-switch, router-router, etc). Routers connect to frame relay and other WAN networks using serial cables. Rollover cables are special cables used for connecting to the console ports of Cisco devices.
Question No : 7 – (Topic 1)  Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

SwitchA receives the frame with the addressing shown. According to the command output also shown in the exhibit, how will SwitchA handle this frame?
A. It will drop the frame.
B. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/6 only.
C. It will flood the frame out all ports.
D. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.
100-105 dumps 
Answer: B
Explanation:
Switches keep the learned MAC addresses in a table, so that when a frame comes in with a destination MAC address that the switch has already learned, it will forward it to that port only. If a frame comes in with a destination MAC that is not already in the MAC address table, then the frame will be flooded to all ports except for the one that it came in on. In this case, Switch A already knows that 00b0.d0da.cb56 resides on port fa0/6, so it will forward the from out that port.
Question No : 8 – (Topic 1) Which statements accurately describe CDP? (Choose three.)
A. CDP is an IEEE standard protocol.
B. CDP is a Cisco proprietary protocol.
C. CDP is a datalink layer protocol.
D. CDP is a network layer protocol.
E. CDP can discover directly connected neighboring Cisco devices.
F. CDP can discover Cisco devices that are not directly connected.
Answer: B,C,E
Explanation:
CDP (Cisco Discovery Protocol) is a proprietary protocol designed by Cisco to help administrators collect information about both locally attached and remote devices. By using CDP, you can gather hardware and protocol information about neighbor devices containing useful info for troubleshooting and documenting the network.
Question No : 9 – (Topic 1)  Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A network device needs to be installed in the place of the icon labeled Network Device to accommodate a leased line attachment to the Internet. Which network device and interface configuration meets the minimum requirements for this installation?
A. a router with two Ethernet interfaces
B. a switch with two Ethernet interfaces
C. a router with one Ethernet and one serial interface
D. a switch with one Ethernet and one serial interface
E. a router with one Ethernet and one modem interface
100-105 pdf 
Answer: C
Explanation:
Only a router can terminate a leased line attachment access circuit, and only a router can connect two different IP networks. Here, we will need a router with two interfaces, one serial connection for the line attachment and one Ethernet interface to connect to the switch on the LAN
Question No : 10 – (Topic 1)  What must occur before a workstation can exchange HTTP packets with a web server?
A. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
B. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
C. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
D. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
E. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
F. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
Answer: D
Explanation:
HTTP uses TCP port 80, and a TCP port 80 connection must be established for HTTP communication to occur.
Question No : 11 Make Successfully Resolve to server1.example.com where DNS Server is 192.168.0.254.
Answer: 1. vi /etc/resolv.conf
Question No : 12. Quota is implemented on /data but not working properly. Find out the Problem and implement the quota to user1 to have a soft limit 60 inodes (files) and hard limit of 70 inodes (files).
Answer and Explanation:
Quotas are used to limit a user’s or a group of users’ ability to consume disk space. This prevents a small group of users from monopolizing disk capacity and potentially interfering with other users or the entire system. Disk quotas are commonly used by ISPs, by Web hosting companies, on FTP sites, and on corporate file servers to ensure continued availability of their systems. Without quotas, one or more users can upload files on an FTP server to the point of filling a filesystem. Once the affected partition is full, other users are effectively denied upload access to the disk. This is also a reason to mount different filesystem directories on different partitions. For example, if you only had partitions for your root (/) directory and swap space, someone uploading to your computer could fill up all of the space in your root directory (/). Without at least a little free space in the root directory (/), your system could become unstable or even crash. You have two ways to set quotas for users. You can limit users by inodes or by kilobytesized disk blocks. Every Linux file requires an inode. Therefore, you can limit users by the number of files or by absolute space. You can set up different quotas for different filesystems. For example, you can set different quotas for users on the /home and /tmp directories if they are mounted on their own partitions. Limits on disk blocks restrict the amount of disk space available to a user on your system. Older versions of Red Hat Linux included LinuxConf, which included a graphical tool to configure quotas. As of this writing, Red Hat no longer has a graphical quota configuration tool. Today, you can configure quotas on RHEL only through the command line interface.
1. vi /etc/fstab /dev/hda11 /data ext3 defaults,usrquota 1 2
2. Either Reboot the System or remount the partition.
Mount -o remount /dev/hda11 /data
3. touch /data/aquota.user
4. quotacheck -ufm /data
5. quotaon -u /data

6. edquota -u user1 /data and Specified the Soft limit and hard limit on opened file.
To verify either quota is working or not: Soft limit specify the limit to generate warnings to users and hard limit can’t cross by the user. Use the quota command or repquota command to monitor the quota information.
Question No : 13 One Logical Volume named lv1 is created under vg0. The Initial Size of that Logical Volume is 100MB. Now you required the size 500MB. Make successfully the size of that Logical Volume 500M without losing any data. As well as size should be increased online.
Answer and Explanation:
The LVM system organizes hard disks into Logical Volume (LV) groups. Essentially, physical hard disk partitions (or possibly RAID arrays) are set up in a bunch of equalsized chunks known as Physical Extents (PE). As there are several other concepts associated with the LVM system, let’s start with some basic definitions: Physical Volume (PV) is the standard partition that you add to the LVM mix. Normally, a physical volume is a standard primary or logical partition. It can also be a RAID array. Physical Extent (PE) is a chunk of disk space. Every PV is divided into a number of equal sized PEs. Every PE in a LV group is the same size. Different LV groups can have different sized PEs. Logical Extent (LE) is also a chunk of disk space. Every LE is mapped to a specific PE. Logical Volume (LV) is composed of a group of LEs. You can mount a filesystem such as /home and /var on an LV. Volume Group (VG) is composed of a group of LVs. It is the organizational group for LVM. Most of the commands that you’ll use apply to a specific VG.
1. Verify the size of Logical Volume: lvdisplay /dev/vg0/lv1
2. Verify the Size on mounted directory: df -h or df -h mounted directory name
3. Use : lvextend -L+400M /dev/vg0/lv1
4. ext2online -d /dev/vg0/lv1 to bring extended size online.
5. Again Verify using lvdisplay and df -h command.
4. Create one partitions having size 100MB and mount it on /data.
100-105 exam Answer and Explanation:

1. Use fdisk /dev/hda To create new partition.
2. Type n For New partitions
3. It will ask for Logical or Primary Partitions. Press l for logical.
4. It will ask for the Starting Cylinder: Use the Default by pressing Enter Key.
5. Type the Size: +100M You can Specify either Last cylinder of Size here.
6. Press P to verify the partitions lists and remember the partitions name.
7. Press w to write on partitions table.
8. Either Reboot or use partprobe command.
9. Use mkfs -t ext3 /dev/hda? Or mke2fs -j /dev/hda? To create ext3 filesystem.
10. vi /etc/fstab Write: /dev/hda? /data ext3 defaults 1 2
11. Verify by mounting on current Sessions also: mount /dev/hda? /data
Question No : 14. You are new System Administrator and from now you are going to handle the system and your main task is Network monitoring, Backup and Restore. But you don’t know the root password. Change the root password to redhat and login in default Runlevel.
Answer and Explanation:
When you Boot the System, it starts on default Runlevel specified in /etc/inittab: Id:?:initdefault: When System Successfully boot, it will ask for username and password. But you don’t know the root’s password. To change the root password you need to boot the system into single user mode. You can pass the kernel arguments from the boot loader.
1. Restart the System.
2. You will get the boot loader GRUB screen.
3. Press a and type 1 or s for single mode ro root=LABEL=/ rhgb queit s
4. System will boot on Single User mode.
5. Use passwd command to change.

6. Press ctrl+d
100-105 dumps

With multiple modes of testing and self-assessment devices, our 100-105 dumps practice exam is the best in the industry. “Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)“, also known as 100-105 exam, is a Cisco certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Pass4itsure Cisco 100-105 dumps exam questions answers are updated (332 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of 100-105 dumps is CCENT, CCNA Routing & Switching, CCDA, CCNA Security, CCNA Wireless.Pass4itsure offers CCNA Routing & Switch https://www.pass4itsure.com/100-105.html dumps ICND1 practice test and interactive PDF. Interactive practice test that can be downloaded and installed on any Windows Operating System.

Cisco 100-105 Dumps Youtube: https://youtu.be/ROy_RACXzTY

 

 

oracl23

[Update December-12] Best Cisco CCNP 300-070 Dumps Exam Cisco Certified Network Professional Collaboration Certification Guaranteed Success

How many question and what is passing score for Cisco 300-070 dumps? The Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 1 v1.0 (300-070 CIPTV1) exam is a 75 Minutes (65 – 75 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCNP Collaboration certification.”Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 1 v1.0″ is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 300-070 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 300-070 exam.Cisco Certified Network Professional Collaboration 300-070 dumps certification validates your ability to Describe the Basic Operation and Components Involved in a Call, Configure Conferencing Device and Describe the Basic Operation and Components Involved in a Call. These https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-070.html dumps skills allow you to simplify and standardize the most complex daily activities running your team increase your credibility and value within the organization.

[Update December Pass4itsure 300-070 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWVTN3Mm5VOFZCWVU

[Update December Pass4itsure 300-209 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWTlN6bWE4ckRMNmc

300-070 dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-070 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 20
If you have configured translation rules, what command do you use to verify digit manipulation?
A. execute translation-rule
B. show translation-rule
C. test translation-rule
D. debug translation-rule
E. set translation-rule
300-070 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
If the route patterns 5XXX, 51XX, 513X, and 5134 exist within a call route database, which pattern would be matched if the dialed number was 5124?
A. 5XXX
B. 51XX
C. 513X
D. 5134
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
Employees at a company must dial 9 first to reach an external number. Which route pattern is used to route the call if a user dials the toll-free number 1-866-5551212?
A. 9.18XX[2-9]XXXXXX
B. 9.18[0,5-8][0,5-8]XXXXXXX
C. 9.1XXXXXXXXXX
D. 9.1866XXXXXXX
E. 9.1866[2-9]XXXXXX
F. 9.1[2-9]XX[2-9]XXXXXX
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 23
Which DSCP classification is defined in RFC 2474?
A. DSCP CS3.
B. DSCP 0.
C. DSCP AF11.
D. DSCP CS6.
E. DSCP EF.
F. DSCP CS2.
G. DSCP CS1.
H. DSCP AF21.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
Hackers are sending calls through a gateway router that is running SIP. The engineer blocks all SIP messages to the router except from their SIP server, which has an IP address of 208.177.10.1. The customer also must connect via SIP to their Cisco Expressway server with an IP address of 10.1.10.110. Which series of commands secures the router from the hackers?
A. voice service voip voip security allow ipv4 208.177.10.1 255.255.255.255 ipv4 10.1.10.110 255.255.255.255
B. voice service voip ip address trusted list ipv4 208.177.10.1 255.255.255.255 ipv4 10.1.10.110 255.255.255.255
C. voice service voip allow-connections sip to sip ipv4 208.177.10.1 255.255.255.255 ipv4 10.1.10.110 255.255.255.255
D. voice service voip address-hiding ipv4 208.177.10.1 255.255.255.255 ipv4 10.1.10.110 255.255.255.255
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
On what equipment do you configure Layer 2 to Layer 3 QoS mapping?
A. switch
B. router
C. firewall
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
E. bridge
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
Which statement regarding Cisco IP voice media streaming application is correct?
A. It should be activated on the gateway in cluster that supports the TFTP service.
B. It should be activated on the gatekeeper in cluster that supports the TFTP service.
C. It should be activated on the node in cluster that does not support the TFTP service.
D. It should be activated on the node in cluster that supports the TFTP service.
300-070 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
In a multisite deployment, which two voice codecs are recommended to use between intrasite endpoints? (Choose two)
A. G.711
B. G.728
C. H.264

D. G.722
E. G.729
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 28
Which discard digits instruction removes the access code from a number before passing the number onto an adjacent system?
A. PreDot
B. PreAt
C. NoDigits
D. Trailing-#
300-070 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
What is the correct path selection for a call that is routed through a Cisco Unified Communications Manager system?
A. Devices -andgt; Route Group -andgt; Route List -andgt; Route Pattern
B. Route List -andgt; Route Pattern -andgt; Route Group -andgt; Devices
C. Route Pattern -andgt; Route List -andgt; Route Group -andgt; Devices
D. Route Group -andgt; Devices -andgt; Route Pattern -andgt; Route List
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
After you configure a dial plan to call a particular prefix in the PSTN, you notice that some outbound calls are taking longer than usual (15 seconds) before you hear a connecting tone. What is the likely cause of this issue?
A. The outbound gateway must be configured with the new prefix.
B. The endpoint is choosing the best codec to use.
C. The new prefix is overlapping other route patterns.
D. With some prefixes, this is normal behavior of the PSTN.
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 31
Which are true about the Steelhead appliance backups taken and stored by the CMC appliance? (Select 3)
A. They are text file snapshots of the current running configuration taken at 3 a.m. (by default)
B. The CMC appliance creates hyperlinks of the backups for easy viewing with a Web browser
C. The configurations can be copied from the CMC appliance back to the Steelhead appliance via SCP
D. There is a limit of five configurations per Steelhead appliance that can be stored at any one time in a rolling queue
E. The Steelhead configuration files can be edited on the CMC appliance
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 32
What can be monitored via the CMC appliance? (Select 2)
A. Currently logged in users to Steelhead appliances or the CMC appliance
B. Command history per CMC appliance user
C. Rogue Steelhead appliances on the network
D. Current connections for an individual Steelhead appliance
300-070 pdf 
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 33
The Home page in the Management Console for the CMC appliance can be configured to display what information?
A. Default login used by the CMC appliance for each appliance
B. Last hour of throughput across all managed appliances
C. Status of each individual alarm for each managed Steelhead appliance
D. Last 20 lines of a Steelhead appliance’s system log file
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
When using TACACS+ or RADIUS to authenticate management access to the CMC appliance, which of the following is true?
A. You are required to supply login credentials to every Steelhead appliance
B. You will automatically be logged into to every Steelhead appliance
C. All users will use the same user name and password
D. It is not possible to use TACACS+ or RADIUS
300-070 vce 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
What Steelhead appliance models support the installation of Microsoft Windows Server 2008 R2 package
on the RSP? (Select 2)
A. 1050
B. 250
C. 550
D. 3020
Correct Answer: AD

300-070 dumps
We provide the Cisco 300-070 dumps exam preparation materials in two different methods, Practice Test Software and PDF Format. The PDF format ensures portability across a number of devices to allow for preparation on the go. For a more difficult and more complete Cisco Certified Network Professional Collaboration https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-070.html dumps exam preparation practice test software simulates the environment of the real 300-070 exam.

Cisco 300-070 Dumps Youtube:https://youtu.be/8LY0z3tYCbM

oracl23

[Update November-28] Free Cisco 400-351 Dumps CCIE Wireless Exam Questions PDF and VCE Video Training Are The Best Materials

Are the newest Cisco 400-351 dumps available? “CCIE Wireless Written Exam” also known as 400-351 exam, is a Cisco certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Free Cisco 400-351 dumps CCIE Wireless exam questions pdf and vce video training are the best materials. Pass4itsure Cisco 400-351 dumps exam questions answers are updated (261 Q&As) are verified by experts.

The associated certifications of 400-351 dumps is CCIE Wireless. Lengthy details and information of the recommended https://www.pass4itsure.com/400-351.html dumps material very often befuddle the certification candidates.

Exam Code: 400-351
Exam Name: CCIE Wireless Written Exam
Q&As: 261

[Update November Cisco 400-351 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWbVlmaEVvUmZqT2c

[Update November Cisco 300-206 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWam9uZE5CQl9jczA

400-351 dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 400-351 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION NO: 77
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2005 as its application development platform. You have recently finished development of a Windows application using .NET Framework. Users report that the application is not running properly. When
the users try to complete a particular action, the following error message comes out: Unable to find assembly ‘myservices, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=29b5ad26c9de9b95’. You notice that the error occurs as soon as the application tries to call functionality in a serviced component that was registered by using the following command: regsvcs.exe myservices.dll You must make sure that the application can call the functionality in the serviced component with no exceptions being thrown. What will you do to accomplish this task?
A. Run the command line tool: regasm.exe myservices.dll.
B. Copy the serviced component assembly into the C:\Program Files\ComPlus Applications folder.
C. Run the command line tool: gacutil.exe /i myservices.dll.
D. Copy the serviced component assembly into the C:\WINDOWS\system32\Com folder.
400-351 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 78
Allen works as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET as its application development platform. He creates an application using .NET Framework. He wants to encrypt all his e-mails that he sends to anyone. Which of the following will he use to accomplish
the task?
A. PPP
B. FTP
C. PPTP
D. PGP
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 79
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company has several branches worldwide. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2005 as its application development platform. You have recently finished the development of an application using .NET Framework 2.0. The application
can be used only for cryptography. Therefore, you have implemented the application on a computer. What will you call the computer that implemented cryptography?
A. Cryptographic toolkit
B. Cryptosystem
C. Cryptographer
D. Cryptanalyst
400-351 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 80
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET as its application development platform. You create a class library using the .NET Framework. The  library will be used to open the NSCs of computers. Later, you will set up the class library to the
GAC and provide it Full Trust permission. You write down the following code segments for the socket connections: SocketPermission permission = new SocketPermission(PermissionState.Unrestricted); permission.Assert(); A number of the applications that use the class library may not have the necessary permissions to open the network socket connections. Therefore, you are required to withdraw the assertion. Which of the following code segments will you use to accomplish the task?
A. permission.PermitOnly();
B. CodeAccessPermission.RevertDeny();
C. permission.Deny();
D. CodeAccessPermission.RevertAssert();
E. permission.Demand();
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 81
You work as an Application Developer for ABC Inc. You are assigned with developing a Web site that will handle information related to monthly sales of the company. You wish to secure the Web site so that only employees of the Accounts department can view the Web pages. You need to
create roles for the employees of this department. The user account information will be stored in a SQL Server database named Database. You decide to do all this by using the Web Site Administration Tool. Which of the following types of security will you use to accomplish the task?
A. Forms-based authentication
B. Integrated Microsoft Windows authentication
C. Basic authentication
D. Digest authentication
400-351 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 82
You work as a Software Developer for ManSoft Inc. You use Microsoft Visual Studio to create a Web service named MyWebService. You create a SOAP message that is not secure in the Web service. You want to use the SendSecurityFilter class in the Web service to handle the transmission and securing of SOAP messages. Which of the following code segments will you use  to accomplish the task?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A.
public class MySendSecurityFilter : SendSecurityFilter
{
public MySendSecurityFilter(string service, Boolean client)
{ }
public override void SecureMessage(SoapEnvelope envelope, Security security)
{
// Implement validation here
}
}
B.
public class MySendSecurityFilter : SendSecurityFilter
{
public MySendSecurityFilter(string service, Boolean client)
{
base(service,client);
}
public override void SecureMessage(SoapEnvelope envelope, Security security)
{
// Implement validation here
}
}
C.
public class MySendSecurityFilter : SendSecurityFilter
{
public MySendSecurityFilter(string service, Boolean client) : base(service,client)
{ }
public override void SecureMessage(SoapEnvelope envelope, Security security)
{
// Implement validation here
}
}
D.
public class MySendSecurityFilter : SendSecurityFilter
{
public MySendSecurityFilter(string service, Boolean client) : base(service,client)
{ }
public void SecureMessage(SoapEnvelope envelope, Security security)
{
// Implement validation here
}
}

Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 83
You work as a Windows Application Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its application development platform. You create a Windows Forms application using .NET Framework 3.5. The application contains a data-bound control. You use the
LinqDataSource control to use LINQ in the ASP.NET application by setting properties in markup text. The LinqDataSource control uses LINQ to SQL to automatically generate the data commands. You are required to perform data operations by using the LinqDataSource control. What is the correct order in which data operations are applied?
A.
400-351 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 84
You work as a Software Developer for Hi-Tech Inc. You develop an application using Visual Studio.NET 2005. You create an unregistered COM DLL file named Com1.dll. You want to use this Com1.dll file in your application code. However, Com1.dll needs to be registered in the Windows
Registry before it is used by the application. Which of the following tools will you use to accomplish the task?
A. Wsdl.exe
B. Regsvr32.exe
C. Tlbimp.exe
D. Disco.exe
Answer: B

Furthermore, the things included in these sources are also complicated, and most of the candidates hardly understand the Cisco 400-351 dumps materials. On the other hand, our study material is quite easy to comprehend as it is coded in an obvious and easy to understand language. In addition, Pass4itsure provides its Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/400-351.html dumps study material in the way of Questions and Answers formats.

Read More Youtube:https://youtu.be/ZT0UYbdC7FU

oracl23

[Update November-16] Best Quality Cisco 210-260 Dumps IINS Exam Topics Cisco Certified Network Associate Security PDF With The Youtube Knowledge And Skills Certification

How Cisco 210-260 dumps are beneficial to pass exam easily?”Implementing Cisco Network Security” is the name of Cisco 210-260 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Best quality Cisco 210-260 dumps exam topics Cisco Certified Network Associate Security pdf with the youtube knowledge and skills certification. Pass4itsure Cisco 210-260 dumps exam questions answers are updated (310 Q&As) are verified by experts.

The associated certifications of 210-260 dumps is CCNA Security. The Candidate should prepare all exam topics that require In Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/210-260.html dumps exam.

Exam Code: 210-260 
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

[Update November Cisco 210-260 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWU0xad3NvRWR4Qzg

[Update November Cisco 200-155 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWNHFtR0VqbXVEeUU

 

210-260 dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 210-260 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 80
Which two authentication types does OSPF support? (Choose two.)
A. plaintext
B. MD5
C. HMAC
D. AES 256
E. SHA-1
F. DES
210-260 exam 
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 81
Which statement about personal firewalls is true?
A. They can protect a system by denying probing requests.
B. They are resilient against kernel attacks.
C. They can protect email messages and private documents in a similar way to a VPN.
D. They can protect the network against attacks.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 82
Which two authentication types does OSPF support? (Choose two.)
A. plaintext
B. MD5
C. HMAC
D. AES 256
E. SHA-1
F. DES
210-260 dumps 
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 83
How does a device on a network using ISE receive its digital certificate during the new- device registration process?
A. ISE acts as a SCEP proxy to enable the device to receive a certificate from a central CA server.
B. ISE issues a certificate from its internal CA server.
C. ISE issues a pre-defined certificate from a local database.
D. The device requests a new certificate directly from a central CA.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 84
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
The Admin user is unable to enter configuration mode on a device with the given configuration. What change can you make to the configuration to correct the problem?
A. Remove the autocommand keyword and arguments from the username admin privilege line.
B. Change the Privilege exec level value to 15.
C. Remove the two Username Admin lines.
D. Remove the Privilege exec line.
210-260 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 83
How is peer affinity reset in the CLI for an Interceptor appliance cluster?
A. “peer affinity reset” on all Interceptors
B. “neighbor reset” on all Steelheads
C. “service restart” on all Interceptors
D. “neighbor reset” on all Interceptors
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 84
What is the primary purpose of enabling Multiple Interface Support on the Interceptor?
A. It allows for the ability to support multiple NICs on the Interceptor
B. It allows the Interceptor appliance to communicate with Steelhead appliances and other Interceptor appliances via more than one In-path interface
C. It allows the Interceptor appliance to communicate via Multicast to In-path interfaces on the Steelhead appliances
D. It allows the Interceptor appliance to be managed by In-path interfaces as well as the Primary interface
210-260 vce 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 85
The primary purpose of setting proxies (found on Networking Proxies) on the Interceptor is to:
A. Allow for a Web or FTP proxy when specifying a URL on the Management Console or CLI
B. Allow for another Interceptor to redirect on behalf of the current Interceptor
C. Allow for Steelhead appliances to dynamically handle the load of another Steelhead appliance
D. Allow for two Interceptor appliances to act redundantly in a serial configuration
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 86
Refer to the exhibit.

210-260 dumps

What does the term resyncing mean?
A. All Interceptor appliances have been connected and the appliances are transferring connection information
B. All Interceptor appliances and all Steelhead appliances have been connected and the appliances are transferring connection information
C. The connection has been established and the Interceptor appliance is transferring its state information
D. The connection has been established and the devices are transferring their state information
210-260 exam 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 87
Peer affinity is most closely related to:
A. Parallel Interceptor redirection based on Sport ID and client IP
B. Serial Interceptor redirection based on Sport ID to server
C. Segstore ID Steelhead mapping based on Sport ID of Steelhead appliances
D. The shipyard from which Riverbed is most likely to ship Interceptors
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 88
For a new connection, an Interceptor appliance has no peer affinity, which Steelhead appliance will the Interceptor appliance choose for the connection?
A. The Interceptor appliance selects the Steelhead appliance with the least connections
B. The Interceptor appliance selects the Steelhead that has the most connections
C. The Interceptor appliance selects the most loaded Steelhead appliance
D. The Interceptor appliance selects the Steelhead appliance with the most peer affinity
210-260 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 89
For a new connection, a Load Balancing rule matches but none of the target Steelhead appliances in the
rule are available. What will happen to the new connection?
A. The connection is passed through
B. The next rule in the list is examined
C. The Interceptor appliance triggers an alarm
D. The Interceptor appliance discontinues redirecting any new connections and places this rule in admissions control
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 90
By default, which Steelhead appliances are placed in an Interceptor appliance’s auto pool?
A. All Steelhead appliances in the network
B. Peer-neighbor Steelhead appliances as targets in one Load Balancing rule
C. Peer-neighbor Steelhead appliances not assigned as targets in any Load Balancing rule
D. Peer-neighbor Steelhead appliances assigned to all current Load Balancing rules
210-260 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 91
The purpose of Intelligent Forwarding is to:
A. Automatically detect Steelhead appliances in the network
B. Help prevent network loops

C. Assist in the creation of static routes on the Interceptor appliance
D. Preclude the need for proper routing
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 92
The Interceptor appliance will attempt to redirect a connection to a Steelhead appliance in the auto pool:
A. When no user defined Load Balancing rules matches AND peer neighbors are defined
B. When no user defined Load Balancing rules matches AND no peer neighbors are defined
C. When no peer Interceptor appliances are defined
D. When a user-defined Load Balancing rule matches AND a target Steelhead appliance is available
210-260 vce 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 93
The Interceptor appliance cluster can support how many optimized connections?
A. 50,000
B. 100,000
C. 200,000
D. More than 200,000
Correct Answer: D
210-260 dumps

The Cisco 210–260 dumps IINS exam will test the knowledge and ability of the candidate to Compare and contrast symmetric and asymmetric encryption, Configure and verify secure access through https://www.pass4itsure.com/210-260.html dumps SNMP v3 using an ACL and Describe authentication and authorization using ACS and ISE.

Read More Youtube:https://youtu.be/kWu7ntHP4UE

oracl23

[Update November] New Updated Fortinet NSE4 Dumps Exam Questions Is What You Need To Take

Which Fortinet NSE4 dumps certification should you take? “Fortinet Network Security Expert 4 Written Exam – FortiOS 5.4” is the name of Fortinet NSE4 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Fortinet exam. New updated Fortinet NSE4 dumps exam questions is what you need to take. Pass4itsure Fortinet NSE4 dumps exam questions answers are updated (60 Q&As) are verified by experts.

The associated certifications of NSE4 dumps is Fortinet Certification. We all know that in the fiercely competitive IT industry, having some IT authentication certificates is very necessary. Pass4itsure’s latest training material about Fortinet https://www.pass4itsure.com/nse4-5-4.html dumps have 95% similarity with the real test.

Exam Code: NSE4-5.4
Exam Name: Fortinet Network Security Expert 4 Written Exam – FortiOS 5.4
Q&As: 60

[Update November Fortinet NSE4 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWWm41YU9Ra3c2OTg

[Update November SY0-101 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1UbxjiLfwbMkhK-tJZXxrgjaZN6Qh3VBH

NSE4 dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Fortinet NSE4 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 14.
You make a selection with the polygon lasso tool. When a color fill is applied, the edg appears rough. Which tool option should have been selected to soften the selection edg.
A. Blur
B. Border
C. Smooth
D. Anti-Alised
NSE4 exam Answer: D
QUESTION 15.
A layer contains a shape filled with a solid color. You want to fill the shape with a gradient. What should you do?
A. select the shape layer and choose a gradient from the Swatches palette.
B. Select the gradient tool from the toolbox. select a gradient from the options bar, and drag the gradient tool across the shape
C. Select the shape layer; click the Layer Style button on the Layers palette and select Gradient Overly; choose a gradient and click OK
D. Select the shape layer; click the New Adjustment Layer button on the Layers palette and select Gradient Map. choose a gradient and click OK
Answer: C
QUESTION 16.
What is the most efficient thod to isolate a complex object form is background?
A. create a layer mask
B. create an alpha channel
C. use the Extract Image command
D. use the lasso tool to create a selection
NSE4 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION 17.
You make a selection by using the magnetic lasso tool you want modify the selection. Which tool or tools can you use to modify the selection?
A. any selection tool
B. only the magnetic lasso
C. lasso, magnetic lasso or polygonal lasso
D. any selection tool except the magic wand
Answer: A
QUESTION 18.
Which file format supports spot color channel?
A. PICT
B. JPEG
C. Gif89a
D. DCS 2.0
NSE4 pdf Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Which of the following is defined by the following statement? All label mappings received from all peer LSRs are saved.
A. Conservative label retention
B. Liberal label retention.
C. Downstream on demand.
D. Downstream unsolicited.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
What is the common usage of the MPLS EXP bits?
A. Each implementation can use them as they see fit.
B. They are used to carry the Ethertype value.
C. They are used to carry the TTL value.
D. They are used to carry QoS classification.
E. They are used to carry fragmentation flag information
NSE4 vce 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
If an LSP’s loose primary path includes the statement “include green” and “exclude red;” how does CSPF choose the LSP’s path?
A. CSPF chooses a link that is a member of both administrative groups
B. CSPF chooses only those links that are NOT members of the green admin group
C. CSPF prunes the green links and uses these links for the secondary path
D. CSPF signals the LSP path over the green links only, and prunes all other links
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
Click on the exhibit button below. Given the configuration below, which of the following scenarios is FALSE?
A. Both the primary and secondary paths are explicitly defined.
B. The primary path is active and the secondary path is in hot standby.
C. The LSP defined will use the primary path and will signal the secondary path to become active if the primary path fails.
D. The LSP has the same source and destination for both primary and secondary paths.
NSE4 exam 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
Which of the following commands may only be used on the head end router to verify the status of an LSP named “LSP 1”? (Choose two)
A. show router mpls Isp “LSP 1” originate
B. show router mpls Isp “LSP 1” path detail
C. show router rsvp session originate
D. show router rsvp session “LSP 1”
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 24
Which of the following are the default settings for the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR when using LDP?
A. Ordered control mode; downstream on demand.
B. Ordered control mode; downstream unsolicited.

C. Independent control mode; downstream on demand.
D. Independent control mode; downstream unsolicited.
NSE4 dumps 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
Which default LDP parameter are you able to change with CLI?
A. Label space mode
B. Label retention
C. Control mode
D. Keepalive factor
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 26
Which of the following are characteristics of an LSP? (Choose two)
A. It is unidirectional.
B. It is bidirectional.
C. It must always have a secondary path.
D. It provides a specific tunnel for a FEC through the network.
E. It always follows the IGP best path.
NSE4 pdf 
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 27
In MPLS, at which device are packets assigned to a FEC?
A. LSR
B. LER
C. eLER
D. iLER
E. CE
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
When configuring an LSP for fast reroute one-to-one protection, which of the following statements is true?
A. The LSP can also use facility backup.
B. The LSP is limited to node protection.
C. You cannot request bandwidth on the protected LSP.
D. Node protection can be disabled.
NSE4 vce 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
Which of the following are functions of the MPLS control plane in a router? (Choose two)
A. Label allocation and management.
B. Label swapping.
C. Pushing a label on an unlabeled packet.
D. Label signaling.
E. Routing lookups.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 30
Which of the following statements regarding RSVP refresh reduction are true1? (Choose two)
A. Message-IDs replace individual refresh messages.
B. Refresh reduction applies only to reservation messages.
C. RSVP generates a summary-refresh message for each LSP.
D. An LSP state change causes an incremented Message-ID.
NSE4 exam 
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 31
Which of the following reservation styles can be used to prevent both the primary and secondary paths from booking resources on a common link?
A. Fixed filter
B. Shared explicit
C. Standby explicit LSP
D. Preemptive filter
E. Link capacity filter
Correct Answer: B

IT authentication certificate is a best proof for your IT professional knowledge and experience. Fortinet NSE4 dumps is a very important certification exam in the IT industry and passing Fortinet NSE4 dumps is very difficult. But in order to let the job position to improve spending some money to choose a good https://www.pass4itsure.com/nse4-5-4.html dumps training institution to help you pass the exam is worthful.

Read More Youtube:https://youtu.be/EoXjBEzdE_w

oracl23

[Update October] 100% Success Rate Cisco 210-250 Dump SECFND Exam Practice for Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals

Where do I get trusted CCNA dumps for Cisco 210-250 dump?”Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals” is the name of Cisco 210-250 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. 100% success rate Cisco 210-250 dump SECFND exam practice for Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals. Pass4itsure Cisco 210-250 dumps exam questions answers are updated (80 Q&As) are verified by experts.

The associated certifications of 210-250 dumps is CCNA Cyber Ops. Pass4itsure https://www.pass4itsure.com/210-250.html dumps questions cover all topics on the 210-250 exam and you get to decide which ones you want to study.

Exam Code: 210-250
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals
Q&As: 80

[Update October Cisco 210-250 Dump From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWRzdFOXJORHhsck0

[Update October Cisco 200-155 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWNHFtR0VqbXVEeUU

210-250 dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 210-250 Dump Exam Q&As:

QUESTION NO: 11
You are managing an AdWords campaign for your organization. You have two assistants who
work with you to manage several ads through the Google AdWords Editor. You’d like to leave
comments to items in the AdWords Editor to help communicate changes, inform your assistants,

and allow them to respond to your queries. What’s the correct path to leave a comment on an item
in Google AdWords Editor?
A. You can’t leave comments directly on items in Google AdWords Editor. You can attach items,
such as .txt or .doc items to leave notes.
B. You can add comments to items in Google AdWords Editor. Select the item in Google AdWords
Editor and click Add Comment at the bottom of the tab.
C. You can’t leave comments directly on items in Google AdWords Editor. You can use a Notepad
document (or any document in .txt format) and attach it to items.
D. You can add comments to items in Google AdWords Editor. Select the item in Google AdWords
Editor and click Insert Comment from the Extras column.
210-250 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 12
You are a Google AdWords professional explaining how your client should create a budget for
their Google AdWords campaign. The client is confused how Google AdWords determines the
lowest possible value for the highest position of the ad. You explain that Google AdWords uses a
combination of the Quality Score and the CPC bid. The customer still isn’t satisfied and wants a
more in-depth explanation. Which of the following is the best description how Google AdWords
determines ad ranks in search pages?
A. Google AdWords will divide the Ad Rank of the ad showing above you by your Quality Score,
then round off to the nearest cent.
B. Google AdWords will divide the Ad Rank of the average bid of all ads competing you’re your
keywords by your Quality Score, then round off to the nearest cent.
C. Google AdWords will divide the Ad Rank of the ad showing beneath you by your Quality Score,
then round off to the nearest cent.
D. Google AdWords considers whoever bids the highest for a keyword and then that person
moves to the top of the order.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 13
You are a consultant for a wedding photographer, and you’re helping her with her Google
AdWords account. The photographer doesn’t understand why her ad for the Google Network
hasn’t started generating traffic yet. You explain that the ad has just been created, and that there
are three qualifications for the ad to go live. Which of the following is NOT one of the three
qualifications for an ad to go live on the Google Network?

A. The ad must be prepaid for thirty days.
B. The ad must meet the partner requirements.
C. The ad must be opted into the Google Network.
D. The ad must be reviewed and approved.
210-250 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 14
Jerry has downloaded and installed the Google AdWords editor. He manages many ads for his
company, but the web address for his company is changing. He needs a way to quickly and
accurately edit the destination URL for his company’s Google AdWords ads, without having to edit
them each, individually. What’s the best way for Jerry to edit the entire destination domain for his
company?
A. Because Google needs to approve destination URL changes, Jerry will have to use the online
Google AdWords editor, and wait for Google’s approval.
B. Jerry can do this through Google AdWords editor and the Campaign Manager.
C. Jerry can do this through the Google AdWords editor through Campaign Manager;by choosing
all campaigns and then editing the domain URL for all campaigns.
D. Jerry can do this through the Google AdWords editor, with the Advanced Editing Tools and the
Advanced URL Changes option
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 15
Henry has been running Google AdWords for the past six months. He has a good clickthrough
rate, but he feels that his sales aren’t in proportion to the clickthrough rate he’s receiving. Henry
wants to optimize his site, but he wants to identify where he’s losing visitors on the way to
conversion. Which Google Analytics report could Henry run, to help identify this trend and show
optimization opportunities?
A. Top exit pages report
B. Site overlay report
C. Top landing pages report
D. Funnel visualization report
210-250 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 16
Gary is explaining the process of the Google Search Query to his manager. Gary states that the
pages that Google believes is important will show up higher in the organic search results. What
term should Gary actually use to describe the order of search results by Google?
A. Indexing Technology
B. Hypertext-Matching Analysis
C. PageRank Technology
D. Organic search listings
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 17
If you open your Google AdWords account and want to see instant insights into your account’s
performance, where would you look?
A. Account Statistics
B. Reports
C. CTR
D. Google Analytics
210-250 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 18
Charlie sells merchandise online for movie products. His new line of products that he wants to
advertise is related to Iron Man. Charlie would like to create an embedded match keyword
targeting ad for his Iron Man products, without his ad showing up for the exact match of the movie
Iron Man. Which one of the following would allow Charlie’s ads to appear for Iron Man Cards and
Iron Man Collectibles, but not for the exact match of Iron Man?
A. +[“Iron Man”]
B. -[Iron Man]
C. (“Iron Man”)
D. {Iron Man}
Answer: B

I felt very prepared when I took my 210-250 dump exam and passed without any trouble. Pass4itsure provides you with all the material needed to study and pass the https://www.pass4itsure.com/210-250.html dump exam, and at reasonable prices too.
Read More Youtube:https://youtu.be/NUhvf17qiMk

oracl23

[Update October] Easily Pass Free Microsoft MCSA 70-764 Dumps Exam Questions Guaranteed Success With The Youtube Knowledge And Skills

Who can share new Microsoft 70-764 dumps? “Administering a SQL Database Infrastructure” is the name of Microsoft 70-764 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Microsoft exam. Easily pass free Microsoft MCSA 70-764 dumps exam questions guaranteed success with the youtube knowledge and skills. Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-764 dumps exam questions answers are updated (136 Q&As) are verified by experts.

The associated certifications of 70-764 dumps is MCSA. We also guarantee you about our quality and latest MCSA https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-764.html dumps. It carries valid and updated SQL Server 70-764 new questions.

Exam Code: 70-764
Exam Name: Administering a SQL Database Infrastructure
Q&As: 119

[Update October Microsoft 70-764 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWb05wVEFoVWk4UE0

[Update October Microsoft 70-767 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWaWpOOFpVd3ZyMTg

70-764 dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-764 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 62. Sam works in an office and he is assigned with the task of preparing a document. He wants to
shift all the lines of a paragraph to the right except the first line. What will he do to accomplish the
task?
A. Apply Hanging Indent.
B. Apply Right Indent.
C. Apply Left Indent.
D. Apply First Line Indent.
70-764 exam Answer: A
Explanation:
Hanging Indent moves all the lines of a paragraph to the right except the first line. It seems that all
the lines are hanging from the first line. Answer: D is incorrect. First Line Indent shifts only the first
line of a paragraph to the right. Answer: B is incorrect. Right Indent shifts the right margin of a
paragraph to the left. Answer: C is incorrect. Left Indent shifts the left margin of a paragraph to the
right.
QUESTION 63.John prepares a document and he wants to add a numbered list in it. Mark the icon that he should
choose to create the numbered list.
Explanation:
Numbered list is a type of list format in which numbers are used to start the list.

QUESTION 64
Which of the following would NOT be classified as a threat to a project?
A. A competitor may launch a rival product first thus affecting the expected market share for the product
B. It is possible that the product completes user acceptance testing in a single test cycle rather that the
scheduled two
C. A prototype may be damaged in transit
D. A critical meeting could be affected by air travel disruption
70-764 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 65
Which of the following is NOT a purpose of the Risk theme?
A. Improve the ability of the project to succeed
B. To support better decision making
C. To verify products are fit for purpose
D. To assess uncertainty
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 66
Which of the following represents the threshold levels of risk exposure that, when exceeded, will trigger an
Exception Report?
A. Risk proximity
B. Risk tolerance
C. Risk allowance
D. Risk profile
70-764 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 67
Which of the following statements describes a risk cause?
A. The area of uncertainty in terms of the threat or the opportunity
B. The situation that gives rise to the risk
C. The impact(s) that the risk would have on the project objectives should the risk materialize
D. How soon in the future the risk is likely to occur
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 68
Which of the following statements describes a risk event?
A. The area of uncertainty in terms of the threat or the opportunity
B. The situation that gives rise to the risk
C. The impact(s) that the risk would have on the project objectives should the risk materialize
D. How soon in the future the risk is likely to occur
70-764 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 69
Which of the following statements describes a risk effect?
A. The area of uncertainty in terms of the threat or the opportunity
B. The situation that gives rise to the risk

C. The impact(s) that the risk would have on the project objectives should the risk materialize
D. How soon in the future the risk is likely to occur
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 70
What is the purpose of the Risk Management Strategy?
A. Describes in detail each risk identified in the project and how each risk should be managed
B. Describes how each risk owner and risk actionee will manage and fund the actions to mitigate each
risk
C. Describes the risk response actions taken to mitigate the project’s risks
D. Describes the techniques and standards to be applied and responsibilities for achieving effective risk
management procedures
70-764 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 71
Which of the following products is used after the Starting Up a Project process to capture and maintain
information on all of the identified threats and opportunities relating to the project?
A. Risk Management Strategy
B. Risk Register
C. Issue Register
D. Quality Register
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 72
Which of the following risk responses can be used to seize an opportunity to ensure a risk ‘will’ happen
and the impact ‘will’ be realized?
A. Accept
B. Exploit
C. Enhance
D. Fallback
70-764 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 73
What is the name given to an individual who is responsible for the management, monitoring and control of
all aspects of a particular risk assigned to them?
A. Risk Actionee
B. Risk Coordinator
C. Project Risk Manager
D. Risk Owner
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 74
What is the name given to the individual assigned to carry out a risk response action or actions to respond
to a particular risk or set of risks?
A. Risk Manage
B. Risk Coordinator
C. Risk Actionee
D. Risk Owner

70-764 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 75
Which of the following is TRUE regarding risk?
A. A Risk Register contains details of the risk management techniques and standards to be applied
B. The PRINCE2 risk management procedure consists of five iterative steps: Identify, Assess, Plan,
Implement, Communicate
C. A Risk Management Strategy is produced by a risk owner
D. PRINCE2’s approach to risk does not involve stakeholders
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 76
Which of the following is NOT one of the five risk management procedure steps?
A. Assess
B. Identify
C. Plan
D. Register
70-764 vce Correct Answer: D

We have a strict policy of updating the MCSA Administering an SQL Database Infrastructure 70-764 dumps question. All of our IT professionals are sitting behind the scene and work hard to provide you the authentic Microsoft https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-764.html dumps training material.

Read More Youtube:https://youtu.be/JUUqBu92Crs

oracl23