MCSE: Business Intelligence

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Languages: English, Japanese
Audiences: IT professionals
Technology: Microsoft SQL Server 2014
Credit toward certification: MCP, MCSE
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70-470 exam

Skills measured
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. View video tutorials about the variety of question types on Microsoft exams. Please note that the questions may test on, but will not be limited to, the topics described in the bulleted text. Do you have feedback about the relevance of the skills measured on this exam? Please send Microsoft your comments. All feedback will be reviewed and incorporated as appropriate while still maintaining the validity and reliability of the certification process. Note that Microsoft 70-470 exam will not respond directly to your feedback. We appreciate your input in ensuring the quality of the Microsoft Certification program.
If you have concerns about specific questions on this exam, please submit an exam challenge.
If you have other questions or feedback about Microsoft Certification exams or about the certification program, registration, or promotions, please contact your Regional Service Center. Read More Official Information:https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-470.aspx

Build an analysis services multidimensional database
Implement a cube
Use SQL Server Data Tools – Business Intelligence (SSDT-BI) to build the cube; use SSDT-BI to do non-additive or semi-additive measures in a cube, define measures, specify perspectives, define translations, define dimension usage, define cube-specific dimension properties, define measure groups, implement reference dimensions, implement many-to-many relationships, implement fact relationships, implement role-playing relationships, create and manage linked measure groups and linked dimensions, create actions 70-470 exam
Implement custom logic in a data model
Define key performance indicators (KPIs); define calculated members; create relative measures (growth, YoY, same period last year), percentage of total using MDX; named sets; add Time Intelligence; implement ranking and percentile; define MDX script to import partial PowerPivot model
Select an appropriate model for data analysis
Select Tabular versus Multidimensional based on scalability needs, traditional hierarchical, data volume; select appropriate organizational BI, such as corporate BI or PowerBI, and team and personal BI needs and data status

70-470 exam

Question: 1
You need to deploy the StandardReports project.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Deploy the project from SQL Server Data Tools (SSDT).
B. Use the Analysis Services Deployment utility to create an XMLA deployment script.
C. Use the Analysis Services Deployment wizard to create an MDX deployment script.
D. Use the Analysis Services Deployment wizard to create an XMLA deployment script.
Answer: AD

Explanation:
There are several methods you can use to deploy a tabular model project. Most of the deployment methods that can be used for other Analysis Services projects, such as multidimensional, can also be used to deploy tabular model projects.
A:  Deploy command in SQL Server Data Tools
The Deploy command provides a simple and intuitive method to deploy a tabular model project from the SQL Server Data Tools authoring environment.
Caution:
This method should not be used to deploy to production servers. Using this method can overwrite certain properties in an existing model.
D: The Analysis Services Deployment Wizard uses the XML output files generated from a Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Services project as input files. These input files are easily modifiable to customize the deployment of an Analysis Services project. The generated deployment script can then either be immediately run or saved for later deployment.
Incorrect:
not B: The Microsoft.AnalysisServices.Deployment utility lets you start the Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Services deployment engine from the command prompt. As input file, the utility uses the XML output files generated by building an Analysis Services project in SQL Server Data Tools (SSDT)

Question: 2
You need to create the hierarchy in the AdhocReports project in time for the next production release cycle.
What should you do?
A. Multi-select all of the columns, right-click the columns, and then click the Create Hierarchy command. Check in the changes before the next release cycle.
B. Use the RELATED() function to consolidate the columns in the DimSalesTerritory table, multi-select the columns, right-click the columns, and then click the Create Hierarchy command. Check in the changes before the next release cycle.
C. Use the RELATEDTABLEQ function to consolidate the tables, multi-select the columns in the hierarchy, right-click the columns, and then click the Create Hierarchy command. Check in the changes before the next release cycle.
D. Use the RELATED() function to consolidate the columns in the DimEmployee table, multi-select the columns, right-click the columns, and then click the Create Hierarchy command. Check in the changes before the next release cycle.
Answer: D  600-199 dumps

Manage, maintain, and troubleshoot a SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) database
Process data models
Define processing of tables or partitions for tabular and multidimensional models; define processing of databases, cubes, and dimensions for multidimensional models; select full processing versus incremental processing; define remote processing; define lazy aggregations; automate with Analysis Management Objects (AMO) or XML for Analysis (XMLA); process and manage partitions by using PowerShell
70-470 exam Install and maintain an SSAS instance
Install SSAS; install development tools; identify development and production installation considerations; upgrade SSAS instance; define data file and program file location; plan for Administrator accounts; define server and database level security; support scale-out read-only; update SSAS (service packs); install and maintain each instance type of Analysis Services, including PowerPivot; restore and import PowerPivot; back up and restore by using PowerShell. https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-470.html

oracl23
Microsoft

Here Are Latest Microsoft 70-480 Exam Dumps Questions and Answers

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070-480 exam

Exam Code: 070-480
Exam Name: Microsoft (Programming in HTML5 with JavaScript and CSS3)
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Total Q&A: 169 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-21
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NO.1 You are developing a customer web form that includes the following HTML.
<label id=”txtValue”X/label> Information from the web form is submitted to a web service. The web
service
returns the following JSON object.
{ “Confirmation”: “1234”, “FirstName”: “John”}
You need to display the Confirmation number from the JSON response in the txtValue label field.
Which JavaScript code segment should you use?
A. $(“#txtValue”).val = (JSONObject.Confirmation);
B. $(“#txtValue”).val(JSONObject.Confirmation);
C. $(“#txtValue”).text = (JSONObject.Confirmation);
D. $(“#txtValue”).text(JSONObject.Confirmation);
Answer:D

NO.2 You are developing a customer web form that includes the following HTML.

<input id=”txtValue” type=”text” />
A customer must enter a valid age in the text box prior to submitting the form.
You need to add validation to the control.
Which code segment should you use?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer:D

NO.3 You are developing a customer contact form that will be displayed on a page of a company’s
website. The page collects information about the customer. If a customer enters a value before
submitting the form, it must be a valid email address. You need to ensure that the data validation
requirement is met. What should you use?
A. <input name=”email” type=”url”/>
B. <input name=”email” type=”text” required=”required”/>
C. <input name=”email” type=”text”/>
D. <input name=”email” type=”email”/>
Answer:D

O.4 You are developing a web page that enables customers to upload documents to a web server.
The
page includes an HTML5 PROGRESS element named progressBar that displays information about the
status of the upload. The page includes the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference
only.)
An event handler must be attached to the request object to update the PROGRESS element on the
page.
You need to ensure that the status of the upload is displayed in the progress bar. Which line of code
should you insert at line 03?
A. xhr.upload.onloadeddata =
B. xhr.upload.onplaying =
C. xhr.upload.onseeking =
D. xhr.upload.onprogress =
Answer:D

NO.5 You are developing a customer web form that includes the following HTML.
<input id.”txtValue” /> A customer must enter a value in the text box prior to submitting the form.
You need
to add validation to the text box control. Which HTML should you use?
A. <input id=”txtValue” type=”text” required=”required”/>
B. <input id=”txtValue” type=”text” pattern=”[A-Za-z]{3}” />
C. <input id=”txtValue” type=”required” />
D. <input id=”txtValue” type=”required” autocomplete=”on” />
Answer:A

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oracl23
Microsoft

Microsoft 70-410 study guide – 100% Free VCE Files

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70-410 study guide

QUESTION 56
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a single domain. The domain contains two domain controllers named DC1 and DC2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. The domain contains a user named User1 and a global security group named Group1. User1 logs on to a client computer named Computer1. You need to disable the computer account of Computer1. Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Add-AdPrincipalGroupMembership
B. Install-AddsDomainController
C. Install WindowsFeature
D. Install AddsDomain
E. Rename-AdObject
F. Set-AdAccountControl
G. Set-AdGroup
H. Set-User
Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 57
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a single domain. The domain contains two domain controllers named DC1 and DC2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. The domain contains a user named User1 and a global security group named Group1. You reconfigure DC2 as a member server in the domain. You need to add DC2 as the first domain controller in a new domain in the forest. Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Add-AdPrincipalGroupMembership
B. Install-AddsDomainController
C. Install WindowsFeature
D. Install AddsDomain
E. Rename-AdObject
F. Set-AdAccountControl
G. Set-AdGroup
H. Set-User
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the Hyper-V server role installed. You create an external virtual switch named Switch1. Switch1 has the following configurations:
-Connection type: External network
-Single-root I/O visualization (SR-IOV): Enabled
-Ten virtual machines connect to Switch1.
You need to ensure that all of the virtual machines that connect to Switch1 are isolated from the external network and can connect to each other only. The solution must minimize network downtime for the virtual machines. What should you do?
A. Change the Connection type of Switch1 to Internal network.
B. Change the Connection type of Switch1 to Private network.
C. Remove Switch1 and recreate Switch1 as an internal network.
D. Remove Switch1 and recreate Switch1 as a private network.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 59
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. VM1 has several snapshots. You need to modify the snapshot file location of VM1. What should you do?
A. Right-click VM1, and then click Export…
B. Modify the Hyper-V settings.
C. Delete the existing snapshots, and then modify the settings of VM1.
D. Shut down VM1, and then modify the settings of VM1.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 60
You have a server that runs a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to change the DNS server used by IPv6. What should you do?
A. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set-NetIpv6Protocol cmdlet.
B. From Sconfig, configure the Network Settings.
C. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set-DnsClientServerAddresscmdlet.
D. Run the sc.exe command and specify the config parameter.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 61
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You plan to create a storage pool that will contain a new volume. You need to create a new 600-GB volume by using thin provisioning. The new volume must use the parity layout. What is the minimum number of 256-GB disks required for the storage pool?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 62
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You try to install the Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5 Features feature on Server1, but the installation fails repeatedly. You need to ensure that the feature can be installed on Server1. What should you do?
A. Install the Web Server (IIS) server role.
B. Run the Add-WindowsPackagecmdlet.
C. Run the Add-AppxProvisionedPackagecmdlet.
D. Connect Server1 to the Internet.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 63
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains two domains named contoso.com and child.contoso.com. The forest contains two domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.

You need to ensure that DC2 can provide authoritative responses for queries to the contoso.com namespace. What should you do?
A. On DC1, create a delegation.
B. On DC1, change the replication scope of the contoso.com zone.
C. On DC2, create a forwarder.
D. On DC2, modify the Zone Transfers settings.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 64
You are configuring the IPv6 network infrastructure for a branch office. The corporate network administrator allocates the 2001:DB8:0:C000::/58 address space for use in the branch office. You need to identify the maximum number of IPv6 subnets you can create. How many IPv6 subnets should you identify?
A. 32
B. 64
C. 128
D. 1024
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 65
You have a print server named Server1. You install a printer on Server1. You share the printer as Printer1. You need to configure Printer1 to be available only from 19:00 to 05:00 every day. Which settings from the properties of Printer1 should you modify?
A. Device Settings
B. Advanced
C. Security
D. Ports
E. Sharing
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 66
You have two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the DHCP Server server role installed. You need to create an IPv6 reservation for Server2. Which two values should you obtain from Server2? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. the hardware ID
B. the DHCPv6 unique identifier
C. the DHCPv6 identity association ID
D. the SMSBIOS GUID
E. the MAC address
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 67
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two member servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. You log on to Server1. You need to retrieve a list of the active TCP connections on Server2. Which command should you run from Server1?
A. winrm get server2
B. dsquery * -scope base -attrip,server2
C. winrs -r:server2netstat
D. netstat> server2
Correct Answer: C

70-410 study guide
QUESTION 68
You have a server named Server1 that has the Print and Document Services server role installed. You need to provide users with the ability to manage print jobs
on Server1 by using a web browser.
What should you do?

A. Start the Computer Browser service and set the service to start automatically.
B. Install the LPD Service role service.
C. Install the Internet Printing role service.
D. Start the Printer Extensions and Notifications service and set the service to start automatically.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 69
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You plan to create a shared folder. The shared folder will have a quota limit. You discover that when you run the New Share Wizard, you cannot select the SMB Share Advanced option. You need to ensure that you can use SMB Share – Advanced to create the new share. What should you do on Server1 before you run the New Share Wizard?
A. Configure the Advanced system settings.
B. Run the Install-WindowsFeaturecmdlet.
C. Run the Set-SmbSharecmdlet.
D. Install the Share and Storage Management tool.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 70
Your network contains two Active Directory forests named contoso.com and adatum.com. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. A one-way external trust exists between contoso.com and adatum.com. Adatum.com contains a universal group named Group1. You need to prevent Group1 from being used to provide access to the resources in contoso.com. What should you do?
A. Change the scope of Group1 to domain local.
B. Modify the Allowed to Authenticate permissions in adatum.com.
C. Enable SID quarantine on the trust between contoso.com and adatum.com.
D. Modify the Allowed to Authenticate permissions in contoso.com.
Correct Answer: B Exam D

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Exam 70-410: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012

oracl23
CCIE Service Provider

100% free, Cisco 400-201 study materials online

Cisco CCIE SP 400-201 pdf dumps is best way to success.The Pass4itsure Cisco Certified Internet Jobs Expert Service Provider 400-201 test practice test plan is similar to the real CCIE service provider Cisco 400-201 confirmation test. https://www.pass4itsure.com/400-201.html Cisco 400-201 exam dumps,latest 400-201 questions,Authentic 400-201 dumps. The 400-201 CCIE Service Provider written exam has been retired as of February 24, 2020. The Cisco 350-501 SPCOR exam ( Implementing and Operating Cisco Service Provider Network Core Technologies (SPCOR) & CCIE Service Provider ) will replace the 400-201 exam. Pass4itsure has the most authoritative testing experts! To pass the Cisco 350-501 exam, choose Pass4itsure 300-501 dumps

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400-201 CCIE Service Provider
Certification: CCIE Service Provider
Duration: 120 minutes (90 – 110 questions)

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Cisco CCIE Service Provider 400-201 test practice test

QUESTION 1
Which two features must be configured to perform AToM NSF? (Choose two)
A. FRR
B. SSO
C. distribute CEF
D. switch virtual path
E. graceful restart
Correct Answer: BE
Before you configure AToM NSF, you need to configure MPLS LDP Graceful Restart. MPLS LDP GR is enabled
globally. When you enable LDP GR, it has no effect on existing LDP sessions. LDP GR is enabled for new sessions that
are established after the feature has been globally enabled.
How AToM NSF Works AToM NSF improves the availability of the network of the service provider that uses AToM to
provide Layer 2 VPN services. HA provides the ability to detect failures and handle them with minimal disruption to the
service being provided. AToM NSF is achieved by SSO and NSF mechanisms. A standby RP provides control-plane
redundancy. The control plane state and data plane provisioning information for the attachment circuits (ACs) and AToM
pseudowires (PWs) are checkpointed to the standby RP to provide NSF for AToM L2VPNs.

QUESTION 2
An Enterprise XYZ company has a requirement to extend the MPLS/Layer 3 VPN MAN network to the remote branches
using Internet as the transport. Which solution can you provide seamless extension of the MPLS/Layer 3 VPN?
A. LISP
B. L2TPv3
C. Cisco Unified MPLS
D. 2547oDMVPN
E. Carrier Supporting Carrier
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

Pass4itsure Cisco 400-201 exam questions q3

An inter-AS VPN between ISP-A and ISP-B is being deployed to support end-to-end connectivity for CE-1 and CE-2.
For scalability reasons, the ASBR routers cannot exchange VPN routes for CE-1 and CE-2.
Which two configurations are needed to support this requirement? (Choose two.)
A. one VRF on the ASBRs for each CE
B. send-labels on the ASBRs
C. address-family VPNv4 on the ASBRs
D. ebgp-multihop between the PEs
E. ebgp-multihop between the ASBRs
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 4
Which BGP feature protects the external BGP peering session from CPU utilization-based attacks that use forged IP
packets?
A. BGP multihop
B. TTL security check
C. BGP FlowSpec
D. Secure BGP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5

Pass4itsure Cisco 400-201 exam questions q5

Refer to the exhibit. Which solution is implemented?
A. BGP LS
B. BGP IP FRR
C. BGP PIC edge D. BGP FlowSpec
E. BGP PIC core
F. loop-free alternate
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which descriptions of Netflow is correct? (Choose three.)
A. By default,Netflow records bidirectional IP traffic flow.
B. Netflow answers questions regarding IP traffiC. who, what, where, when, and how
C. Netflow accounts for both transit traffic and traffic destined for the router.
D. Netflow returns the subinterface information in the flow records.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 7
When an MPLS Layer 2 VPN runs in the hub-and-spoke model, where is QoS implemented?
A. hub and spoke
B. PE
C. CE
D. hub
E. spoke
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which carrier-grade IPv6 technology helps with IPv4 address depletion?
A. dual stack and NAT444
B. NAT444 and 6RD
C. NAT444 and DS-Lite
D. 6RD and DS-Lite
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
In which Cisco IOS configuration mode is the route distinguisher (RD) configured?
A. R1(config-route-at)#
B. R1(config-route-map)#
C. R1(config-it)#
D. R1(config-vrf)#
E. R1(config)#
F. R1(router)#
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Drag and drop the characteristics of the MVPN on the left onto the correct MVPN profile on the right.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure Cisco 400-201 exam questions q10

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Cisco 400-201 exam questions q10-2

QUESTION 11
Which three of these are major components of an MPLS VPN network? (Choose three)
A. LDP notification
B. L2TPv3 session
C. VPN route target communities
D. Multiprotocol BGP peering of PE routers
E. MPLS forwarding
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 12
In MPLS-enabled networks, which two improvements does EVPN provide compared to traditional VPLS solutions?
(Choose two)
A. use of BGP as a control-plane protocol
B. use of LDP to allocate EVPN-related labels
C. optimized learning and flooding process
D. leveraging of enhanced VFIs to provide greater scalability
E. per-flow load balancing
F. no need for exchange of MAC reachability between PEs
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 13
Which statement about OSPFv3 is true?
A. OSPFv3 runs on per subnet basis instead of per-link.
B. OSPFv3 instance ID is only locally significant.
C. OSPFv3 authentication is performed using the authentication field in the OSPFv3 packet header.
D. OSPFv3 neighbor discovery messages can be sourced only from link-local addresses.
Correct Answer: D

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Cisco 400-201 Exam Video

Change

RS exit stake in history stage, RS direction changed to Enterprise direction, existing RS certification automatically upgraded to enterprise infrastructure certification after the release of new certification.

Design direction changed to DevNet direction, CCDA to DevNet Associate, CCDP to DevNet Professional.

The next generation CCIE is still valid for 3 years, but more than 3 years only need to choose to re-test the written test to activate, no need to test LAB activation.

Ten-year honor CCIE changed to 20-year honor CCIE That’s what’s in today’s Cisco workshop, six years of precipitation for the next generation of networking system changes.

CCIE Change

Cisco CCIE Service Provider 2020

The 400-201 CCIE Service Provider written exam has been retired as of February 24, 2020.

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Cisco

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Cisco Collaboration Servers and Appliances Role 500-325 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which purpose of the Call Service Connect of Cisco Spark Hybrid is true?
A. It makes Cisco Spark aware of calls placed between VCS devices
B. It integrates Cisco Spark with Cisco UCM to connect calls
C. It integrates Cisco Spark with Cisco VCS to connect calls
D. It makes Cisco Spark aware of calls placed between UCM, or between HCS, devices
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collaboration/webex-hybrid-services/call-service.html

 

QUESTION 2
Which appliance comes with Cisco UC Virtualization Hypervisor Plus software?
A. BE4000
B. BE6000
C. 3rd-party Specs-based server
D. BE7000
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/BE6000/InstallationGuide/11_6/cucm_b_install-guide-cbe-6000-hm/cucm_b_install-guide-cbe-6000-hm_chapter_010.html#CUCM_TK_AD1A939F_00

 

QUESTION 3
Which software is an eDelivery, field-uploaded license?
A. Cisco TelePresence Virtualization
B. Cisco UC Virtualization Hypervisor Plus
C. Cisco UC Virtualization Foundation
D. VMware vSphere ESXi
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
In the KVM console, which result occurs if the first default is used and network does not have IPv6 configured?
A. KVM switches to IPv4.
B. KVM prompts the admin to enable IPv6.
C. KVM moves to the next default option listed.
D. KVM fails to launch.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
Which type of processing do DSS applications use to perform operations?
A. Parallel
B. Batch
C. Multiplex
D. Linear
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/servers-unified-computing/ucs-b-series-blade-servers/whitepaper_c11-727827.pdf

 

QUESTION 6
Which features are offered by the Cisco BE4000 appliance?
A. premises-based management
B. cloud-hosted management
C. cloud-hosted server
D. 400 premises-based phones
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/unified-communications/business-edition-4000/datasheet-c78-738497.html

 

QUESTION 7
When deploying an OVA Template, which option is used to allocate storage on demand as data is written to disk?
A. Thick Provisioned (Lazy Zeroed) format
B. Thin Provisioned format
C. Medium Provisioned format
D. Thick Provisioned (Eager Zeroed) format
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-4-esx-vcenter/index.jsp?topic=/com.vmware.vsphere.vmadmin.doc_41/vsp_vm_guide/working_with_ovf_templates/t_import_a_virtual_appliance.html

 

QUESTION 8
Which software changes can be required by Cisco TAC to enable third-party Specs-based solution troubleshooting?
A. Consolidate distributed UC applications.
B. Move all critical VMs to the same host server.
C. Consolidate more VMs onto the same server.
D. Temporarily power-down noncritical VMs.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/voice-unified-communications/unified-communications-system/115955-uc-specs-tshoot-00.pdf (p.6)

 

QUESTION 9
How many collaboration applications does the Cisco BE7000H appliance support?
A. eight or ten
B. nine fixed
C. five to ten
D. four or six
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/unified-communications/business-edition-7000/data-sheet-c78-730649.html

 

QUESTION 10
What is the minimum number of blades you must purchase with the CMS2000 server?
A. 10
B. 4
C. 1
D. 8
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/conferencing/ciscoMeetingServer/Installation/Cisco-Meeting-Server-2000-Installation-Guide.pdf

 

QUESTION 11
Which option is the maximum capacity of a Cisco BE7000 appliance deployment?
A. 10000
B. 5000
C. 1000
D. no enforced limit
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/unified-communications/business-edition-7000/data-sheet-c78-730649.html

 

QUESTION 12
Which guideline for SAN and NAS storage arrays is true?
A. Design your deployment in accordance with the Cisco UCS high availability guideline.
B. Adapters for storage access do not follow hardware rules.
C. Ethernet ports for LAN access and Ethernet ports for storage may only be separate.
D. Cisco UC apps use a 24 kilobyte block size to determine bandwidth needs.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/uc_system/virtualization/virtualization-collaboration-storage-design-requirements.html

 

QUESTION 13
Which option do you use to select menu items in the Console window?
A. stylus
B. keyboard keys
C. voice command
D. mouse pointer
Correct Answer: D

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Exam 98-367: Security fundamentals – Microsoft: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-98-367.aspx
This exam validates that a candidate has fundamental security knowledge and skills. It can serve as a stepping stone to the Microsoft Certified Solutions Associate (MCSA) exams. It is recommended that candidates become familiar with the concepts and the technologies described here by taking relevant training courses. Candidates are expected to have some hands-on experience with Windows Server, Windows-based networking, Active Directory, anti-malware products, firewalls, network topologies and devices, and network ports.

pass4itsure 98-367 exam Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Understand security layers (25–30%)
  • Understand operating system security (35-40%)
  • Understand network security (20–25%)
  • Understand security software (15–20%)

The latest Microsoft MTA 98-367 exam practice questions test your strength

QUESTION 1
You need to prevent unauthorized users from reading a specific file on a portable computer if the portable computer is
stolen.
What should you implement?
A. File-level permissions
B. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
C. Folder-level permissions
D. Distributed File System (DFS)
E. BitLocker
Correct Answer: E
Reference: http://4sysops.com/archives/seven-reasons-why-you-need-bitlocker-hard-drive-encryption-for-your-whole-organization/

 

QUESTION 2
By default, what level of security is set for the Local intranet zone?
A. High-Medium
B. Medium-Low
C. High
D. Low
Correct Answer: B
The default security level of the Local intranet zone is Medium-Low. Internet Explorer (IE) allows configuring different
levels of security for different types of Web sites by segmenting them into the following security zone:
Local Intranet: IE can be configured to detect intranet sites automatically. Users can add Web sites to this zone through
Local Intranet sites dialog box. Protected Mode is not enabled for sites in this zone. The default security level of this
zone
is Medium- Low.
Trusted Sites: Putting sites in the Trusted Sites zone often provide elevated privileges. The default security level for this
zone is Medium. Restricted Sites: Potentially malicious sites are put in this zone. The default security level for this zone
is
High. Protected Mode is enabled by default for sites in this zone. Internet: The sites that are not contained in other
zones are automatically hosted in this zone. Sites in this zone are blocked from viewing private data from other Web
sites. The
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default security level of this zone is Medium-High. Protected Mode is enabled by default for sites in this zone.
The three default security levels are Medium, Medium-High, and High.

 

QUESTION 3
Humongous Insurance is an online healthcare insurance company. During an annual security audit a security firm tests
the strength of the company\\’s password policy and suggests that Humongous Insurance implement password history
policy.
What is the likely reason that the security firm suggests this?
A. Past passwords were easily cracked by the brute force method.
B. Past passwords of users contained dictionary words.
C. Previous password breaches involved use of past passwords.
D. Past passwords lacked complexity and special characters.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
Which of the following types of attack is used to configure a computer to behave as another computer on a trusted
network by using the IP address or the physical address?
A. Distributed denial of service (DDOS) attack
B. Honeypot
C. RIP/SAP Spoofing
D. Identity spoofing
Correct Answer: D
Identity spoofing (IP address spoofing) will occur when the attacker wants to use an IP address of a network, computer,
or network component without being authorized for this task. It allows the unprivileged code to use someone else\\’s
identity, and use their security credentials Answer: B is incorrect. A honey pot is a computer that is used to attract
potential intruders or attackers. It is for this reason that a honey pot has low security permissions. A honey pot is used to
gain information about the intruders and their attack strategies. Answer: C is incorrect. RIP and SAP are used to
broadcast network information in a regular way regardless of no changes in the routing or service tables. RIP/SAP
spoofing method is used to intercept the SAP and RIP broadcasts by using a spoofing modem/router, and then re-
broadcast network information via its own routing table or service table. Answer: A is incorrect. In the distributed denial
of service (DDOS) attack, an attacker uses multiple computers throughout the network that it has previously infected.
Such computers act as zombies and work together to send out bogus messages, thereby increasing the amount of
phony traffic. The major advantages to an attacker of using a distributed denial-of-service attack are that multiple
machines can generate more attack traffic than one machine, multiple attack machines are harder to turn off than one
attack machine, and that the behavior of each attack machine can be stealthier, making it harder to track down and shut
down. TFN, TRIN00, etc. are tools used for the DDoS attack.


QUESTION 5
Keeping a server updated:
A. Maximizes network efficiency
B. Fixes security holes
C. Speeds up folder access
D. Synchronizes the server
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
The company that you work for wants to set up a secure network, but they do not have any servers. Which three
security methods require the use of a server? (Choose three.)
A. 802.1x
B. WPA2 Personal
C. WPA2 Enterprise
D. RADIUS
E. 802.11ac
Correct Answer: ACD

 

QUESTION 7
A mail system administrator scans for viruses in incoming emails to increase the speed of mail processing.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if
the underlined text makes the statement correct.
A. Decrease the chances of a virus getting to a client machine
B. Verify that the senders of the messages are legitimate
C. Ensure that all links in the messages are trustworthy
D. No change is needed.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
Sam works as a Web Developer for McRobert Inc. He wants to control the way in which a Web browser receives
information and downloads content from Web sites. Which of the following browser settings will Sam use to accomplish
this?
A. Security
B. Certificate
C. Cookies
D. Proxy server
Correct Answer: A
The Web browser\\’s Security setting controls the way in which a Web browser receives information and downloads
content from Web sites. In Internet Explorer, users can access the Security setting from Tools menu > Internet Options
>
Security tab page.
Answer: C is incorrect. A cookie is a small bit of text that accompanies requests and pages as they move between Web
servers and browsers. It contains information that is read by a Web application, whenever a user visits a site. Cookies
are
stored in the memory or hard disk of client computers. A Web site stores information, such as user preferences and
settings in a cookie. This information helps in providing customized services to users. There is absolutely no way a
Web
server can access any private information about a user or his computer through cookies, unless a user provides the
information. The Web server cannot access cookies created by other Web servers. Answer: D is incorrect. Proxy server
setting is used to connect to the Internet through a proxy server.

 

QUESTION 9
Mark works as a Systems Administrator for TechMart Incl. The company has Windows-based network. Mark has been
assigned a project to track who tries to log into the system and the time of the day at which the attempts occur. He is
also required to create a system to track when confidential files are opened and who is trying to open it. Now, Mark logs
when someone is not able to make a successful attempt to log into the system as Administrator but he also wants to log
when the user is successful to log into the system as Administrator. Which of the following is the reason of logging by
Mark when a user is successfully logged into the system as well as when he is failed?
A. To determine if and when someone is authenticating successfully with high privilege.
B. To make sure that user is not using the Administrator account.
C. To determine if and when someone is authenticating successfully with high privilege.
D. To make sure that user is not facing any problem.
Correct Answer: C
In the above scenario, Mark is required to determine if and when someone is able to be authenticated successfully with
high privilege as well as the hacker activity. If any user was failed for a number of times and was then successful any
attempt, it can be a hacker activity. That\\’s why Mark logs when a user is successfully logged into the system as well as
when he is failed.


QUESTION 10
You have an application that uses IPsec to secure communications between an Internet client and a server on the
internal network.
To which network security service must the IPsec client connect?
A. SFTP
B. SSH
C. VPN
D. RADIUS
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
Which of the following is a method of capturing and recording computer users\\’ keystrokes including sensitive
passwords?
A. Using hardware keyloggers
B. Using Alchemy Remote Executor
C. Using SocketShield
D. Using Anti-virus software
Correct Answer: A
Hardware keyloggers are used for keystroke logging, a method of capturing and recording computer users\\’ keystrokes,
including sensitive passwords. They can be implemented via BIOS-level firmware, or alternatively, via a device plugged
inline between a computer keyboard and
a computer. They log all keyboard activities to their internal memory. Answer: D is incorrect. Anti-Virus software is used
to prevent, detect, and remove malware, including computer viruses, worms, and trojan horses. Such programs may
also
prevent and remove adware, spyware, and other forms of malware.
Anti-Virus software is a class of program that searches your hard drive, floppy drive, and pen drive for any known or
potential viruses. The market for this kind of program has expanded because of Internet growth and the increasing use
of the
Internet by businesses concerned about protecting their computer assets. Popular Anti-Virus packages are as follows:
Bit Defender Anti-Virus McAfee Virus Scan Kaspersky Anti-Virus F-Secure Anti-Virus Symantec Norton Anti-Virus
Panda
Titanium Anti-Virus Avira Anti-Virus Avast Anti-Virus Trend Micro Anti-Virus Grisoft AVG Anti-Virus ESET Nod32 Anti-
Virus Webroot Anti-Virus Quick Heal Anti-Virus eTrust EZ Anti-Virus ZoneAlarm Anti-Virus
Answer: B is incorrect. Alchemy Remote Executor is a system management tool that allows Network Administrators to
execute programs on remote network computers without leaving their workplace. From the hacker\\’s point of view, it
can be
useful for installing keyloggers, spyware, Trojans, Windows rootkits and such. One necessary condition for using the
Alchemy Remote Executor is that the user/attacker must have the administrative passwords of the remote computers
on
which the malware is to be installed.
Answer: C is incorrect. SocketShield provides a protection shield to a computer system against malware, viruses,
spyware, and various types of keyloggers. SocketShield provides protection at the following two levels:
1.Blocking: In this level, SocketShield uses a list of IP addresses that are known as purveyor of exploits. All http
requests for any page in these domains are simply blocked.
2.Shielding: In this level, SocketShield blocks all the current and past IP addresses that are the cause of unauthorized
access.

 

QUESTION 12
You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. Your computer has the Windows 2000 Server operating system.
You want to harden the security of the server. Which of the following changes are required to accomplish this? Each
correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Enable the Guest account.
B. Rename the Administrator account.
C. Remove the Administrator account.
D. Disable the Guest account.
Correct Answer: BD
Answer: B and D For security, you will have to rename the Administrator account and disable the Guest account.
Renaming the Administrator account will ensure that hackers do not break into the network or computer by guessing the
password of the Administrator account. You can also create a fake Administrator account that has no privileges and
audit its use to detect attacks. Disabling the Guest account will prevent users who do not have a domain or local user
account from illegally accessing the network or computer. By default, the Guest account is disabled on systems running
Windows 2000 Server. If the Guest account is enabled, you will have to disable it.

 

QUESTION 13
The stronger password is a critical element in the security plan. Which of the following are the characteristics used to
make up a strong password?
A. It contains more than seven hundred characters and does not contain the user name, real name, or any name that
can be guessed by the attacker easily.
B. It contains more than seven characters and does not contain the user name, real name, or anyname that can be
guessed by the attacker easily.
C. It contains the user name, real name, or any name that can be remembered easily and does not contain more than
seven characters.
D. It contains more than seven characters and the user name, real name, or any name.
Correct Answer: B
A strong password contains more than seven characters and does not contain the user name, real name, or any name
that can be guessed by the attacker easily.

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QUESTION 1
Which two roles can be modified? (Choose two.)
A. Administrator
B. Network Administrator
C. Datastore Consumer
D. Read-Only
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
An administrator wishes to give a user the ability to manage snapshots for virtual machines.
Which privilege does the administrator need to assign to the user?
A. Datastore.Allocate Space
B. Virtual machine.Configuration.create snapshot
C. Virtual machine.Configuration.manage snapshot
D. Datastore.Browse Datastore
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
What is the highest object level from which a virtual machine can inherit privileges?
A. Host Folder
B. Data Center
C. Data Center Folder
D. VM Folder
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
In which two vsphere.local groups should an administrator avoid adding members? (Choose two.)
A. SolutionUsers
B. Administrators
C. DCAdmins
D. ExternalPDUsers
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
Which three services can be enabled/disabled in the Security Profile for an ESXi host? (Choose three.)
A. CIM Server
B. Single Sign-On
C. Direct Console UI
D. Syslog Server
E. vSphere Web Access
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 6
Strict Lockdown Mode has been enabled on an ESXi host.Which action should an administrator perform to allow ESXi Shell or SSH access for users with
administrator privileges?
A. Grant the users the administrator role and enable the service.
B. Add the users to Exception Users and enable the service.
C. No action can be taken, Strict Lockdown Mode prevents direct access.
D. Add the users to vsphere.local and enable the service.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which two groups of settings should be reviewed when attempting to increase the security of virtual
machines (VMs)? (Choose two.)
A. Disable hardware devices
B. Disable unexposed features
C. Disable VMtools devices
D. Disable VM Template features
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
An administrator would like to use a passphrase for their ESXi 6.x hosts which has these characteristics:
Minimum of 21 characters
Minimum of 2 words
Which advanced options must be set to allow this passphrase configuration to be used?
A. retry=3 min=disabled, disabled, 7, 21, 7 passphrase=2
B. retry=3 min=disabled, disabled, 21, 7, 7 passphrase=2
C. retry=3 min=disabled, disabled, 2, 21, 7
D. retry=3 min=disabled, disabled, 21, 21, 2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
An administrator has recently audited the environment and found numerous virtual machines with sensitive
data written to the configuration files.
To prevent this in the future, which advanced parameter should be applied to the virtual machines?
A. isolation.tools.setinfo.disable = true
B. isolation.tools.setinfo.enable = true
C. isolation.tools.setinfo.disable = false
D. isolation.tools.setinfo.enable = false
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
When attempting to log in with the vSphere Web Client, users have reported the error:
Incorrect Username/Password
The administrator has configured the Platform Services Controller Identity Source as:
Type. Active Directory as an LDAP Server
Domain: vmware.com
Alias: VMWAREDefault Domain: Yes
Which two statements would explain why users cannot login to the vSphere Web Client? (Choose two.)
A. Users are typing the password incorrectly.
B. Users are in a forest that has 1-way trust.
C. Users are in a forest that has 2-way trust.
D. Users are logging into vCenter Server with incorrect permissions.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
An administrator needs to create an Integrated Windows Authentication (IWA) Identity Source on a newly
deployed vCenter Server Appliance (VCSA).
Which two actions will accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. Use a Service Principal Name (SPN) to configure the Identity Source.
B. Use a Domain administrator to configure the Identity Source.
C. Join the VCSA to Active Directory and configure the Identity Source with a Machine Account.
D. Create a computer account in Active Directory for the VCSA and configure the Identity Source.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12
An administrator is building a large virtual machine that will require as many vCPUs as the host can
support. An ESXi 6.x host has these specifications:
Six 32-core Intel Xeon Processors
256 GB of Memory
512 GB Local disk space using VMFS5
What is the maximum number of virtual CPUs that the virtual machine can be allocated?
A. 64
B. 128
C. 192
D. 256
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
An administrator is creating a new Content Library. It will subscribe to another remote Content Library
without authentication enabled.
What information from the published library will they need in order to complete the subscription ?
A. Subscription URL
B. A security password from the publishing Content Library
C. Publisher’s Items.json file
D. Username from the publishing Content Library
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
A user notifies an administrator that Content Libraries are not visible.
What is a possible solution?A. Assign the user the read-only role at the global permission level.
B. Assign the user the read-only role at the vCenter Server root level.
C. Assign the user the read-only role at the vCenter Server data center level.
D. Assign the user the read-only role at the vCenter Server cluster level.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
An administrator subscribes to the vCloud Air Disaster Recovery service.
Which replicated objects can be directly monitored and managed?
A. Virtual machine Snapshots
B. vApps
C. Virtual machines
D. ESXi Hosts
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which secondary Private VLAN (PVLAN) type can communicate and send packets to an Isolated PVLAN?
A. Community
B. Isolated
C. Promiscuous
D. Primary
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
What are two limitations of Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) on a vSphere Distributed Switch?
(Choose two.)
A. IP Hash load balancing is not a supported Teaming Policy.
B. Software iSCSI multipathing is not compatible.
C. Link Status Network failover detection must be disabled.
D. It does not support configuration through Host Profiles.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 18
An administrator runs the command esxcli storage core device list and sees the following output:
mpx.vmhba1:C0:T0:L0 Display Name: RAID 5 (mpx.vmhba1:C0:T0:L0) Has Settable Display Name: false
SizE. 40960 Device Type: Direct-Access Multipath Plugin: NMP Devfs Path:
/vmfs/devices/disks/mpx.vmhba1:C0:T0:L0 Status: off Is Local: true
What can be determined by this output?
A. The device is a being used for vFlash Read Cache.
B. The device is in a Permanent Device Loss (PDL) state.
C. The device is a local Solid State Device (SSD).
D. The device is in an All Paths Down (APD) state.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which two considerations should an administrator keep in mind when booting from Software Fiber Channelover Ethernet (FCoE)? (Choose two.)
A. Software FCoE boot configuration can be changed from within ESXi.
B. Software FCoE boot firmware cannot export information in FBFT format.
C. Multipathing is not supported at pre-boot.
D. Boot LUN cannot be shared with other hosts even on shared storage.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 20
Which two statements are true regarding VMFS3 volumes in ESXi 6.x? (Choose two.)
A. Creation of VMFS3 volumes is unsupported.
B. Upgrading VMFS3 volumes to VMFS5 is supported.
C. Existing VMFS3 volumes are unsupported.
D. Upgrading VMFS3 volumes to VMFS5 is unsupported.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 21
Where is a Virtual SAN Fault Domain configured?
A. VMware Virtual SAN Cluster configuration
B. VMware High Availability Cluster configuration
C. Distributed Resource Scheduler configuration
D. Datacenter Advanced Settings configuration
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which two tasks does the Pluggable Storage Architecture (PSA) perform? (Choose two.)
A. Handles I/O queueing to the logical devices.
B. Handles physical path discovery, but is not involved in the removal.
C. Handles physical path discovery and removal.
D. Handles I/O queueing to FC storage HBAs.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 23
What is the command to list multipathing modules on an ESXi 6.x host?
A. esxcli storage core list plugin –plugin-class=MP
B. esxcli storage core list plugin –class-plugin=MP
C. esxcli storage core plugin list –plugin-class=MP
D. esxcli storage core plugin list –class-plugin=MP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Refer to the Exhibit.
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What will be the result of selecting the highlighted device?
A. Datastore will grow up to 200.01GB using the remaining free space on the device.
B. Datastore will add 200.01GB by adding the device as a second extent.
C. The device size can be expanded to be larger than 200.01 GB in size.
D. The device is not suitable for this operation.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Refer to the Exhibit.
pass4itsure 2V0-621 question
An administrator wishes to provide Load Balanced I/O for the device shown in the Exhibit.
To meet this requirement, which setting should be changed?A. Storage Array Type Policy = VMW_NMP_RR
B. Path Selection Policy = Round Robin (VMware)
C. Storage Array Type Policy = VMW_SATP_RR
D. Path Selection Policy = MRU (VMware)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
Which file determines the location of the installation script during a scripted upgrade?
A. boot.cfg
B. ks.cfg
C. script.cfg
D. upgrade.cfg
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
What are three recommended prerequisites before upgrading virtual machine hardware? (Choose three.)
A. Create a backup or snapshot of the virtual machine.
B. Upgrade VMware Tools to the latest version.
C. Verify that the virtual machine is stored on VMFS3, VMFS5, or NFS datastores.
D. Detach all CD-ROM/ISO images from the virtual machines.
E. Set the Advanced Parameter virtualHW.version = 11
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 28
When upgrading vCenter Server, an administrator notices that the upgrade fails at the vCenter Single
Sign-On installation.
What must be done to allow the upgrade to complete?
A. Verify that the VMware Directory service can stop by manually restarting it.
B. Verify that the vCenter Single Sign-On service can stop by manually restarting it.
C. Uninstall vCenter Single Sign-On service.
D. Uninstall the VMware Directory service.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
An administrator is upgrading vCenter Server and sees this error:
The DB User entered does not have the required permissions needed to install and configure vCenter
Server with the selected DB.
Please correct the following error(s): %s
Which two statements explain this error? (Choose two.)
A. The database is set to an unsupported compatibility mode.
B. The permissions for the database are incorrect.
C. The permissions for vCenter Server are incorrect.
D. The database server service has stopped.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 30
Which log file would you examine to identify an issue which occurred during the pre-upgrade phase of a
vCenter Server upgrade process?
A. vcdb_req.out
B. vcdb_export.out
C. vcdb_import.out
D. vcdb_inplace.out
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 31
A vSphere Replication user needs to connect a source site to a target site.
What privilege is needed at both sites?
A. VRM remote.Manage VRM
B. VRM datastore mapper.Manage
C. Host.vSphere Replication.Manage replication
D. Virtual machine.vSphere Replication.Manage replication
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
Which keystore would a vSphere Replication administrator use to manually add an additional Certificate
Authority certificate?
A. hms-truststore.jks
B. hms-keystore.jks
C. certificates.ks
D. cacerts.ks
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 33
What is the compression algorithm used by vSphere Replication to compress data at the source?
A. FastLZ
B. Lz4
C. Lzr
D. Lzx
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 34
Refer to the Exhibit.
pass4itsure 2V0-621 question
An administrator is attempting to enable Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC), but receives the error
shown in the Exhibit.
Which condition would explain the error?
A. The ESXi hosts are not licensed for EVC.
B. The administrator does not have privileges to enable EVC.
C. The ESXi host CPU has the Intel No-Execute feature disabled.
D. The administrator has turned on Intel Virtualization Technology.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 35
An administrator notices that the time on an ESXi 6.x host is incorrect.
Which two actions should the administrator take to correct this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Modify the time for the host using the vSphere client.
B. Correct the NTP settings in the /etc/ntp.conf file.
C. Configure NTP from the Direct Console User Interface.
D. Use the vicfg-ntp command from the vSphere Management Appliance.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 36
An administrator decides to change the root password for an ESXi 6.x host to comply with the company’s
security policies.
What are two ways that this can be accomplished? (Choose two.)
A. Use the Direct Console User Interface to change the password.
B. Use the passwd command in the ESXi Shell.
C. Use the password command in the ESXi Shell.
D. Use the vSphere client to update local users.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 37
An administrator creates a custom ESXi firewall rule using an XML file, however the rules do not appear in
the vSphere Web Client.
Which action should the administrator take to correct the problem?
A. Load the new rules using esxcli network firewall reload.
B. Load the new rules using esxcli network firewall refresh.
C. Verify the entries in the XML file and then reboot the ESXi host.D. Remove the ESXi host from the inventory and add it back.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 38
An administrator wants to power on a virtual machine (VM) while connected to an ESXi host using SSH.
The VM has the following Name and ID:
VM Name = SQL001
VMID = 12345
Which command would successfully power on the virtual machine?
A. vim-cmd vmsvc/power.on 12345
B. vim-cmd vmsvc/power.on SQL001
C. vmware-vim-cmd vmsvc/power.on 12345
D. vmware-vim-cmd vmsvc/power.on SQL001
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 39
What will occur if the .nvram file is deleted from a powered off virtual machine?
A. The .nvram file will get created the next time the virtual machine is powered on.
B. Restoring the file from backup is needed to allow the virtual machine to power on.
C. The virtual machine will fail to power on and enter an Orphaned state.
D. The virtual machine will fail to power on and enter an Inaccessible state.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 40
An administrator tries to connect the vSphere 5.5 Client to an ESXi 6.x host.
What will happen when this takes place?
A. The operation will fail, since the vSphere Client is deprecated in vSphere 6.x.
B. The operation will fail and the administrator will need to delete the client and install the 6.x version.
C. The operation will prompt the administrator to run a script to upgrade the vSphere Client.
D. The operation will update the vSphere Client silently in the background, then connect.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which three components should an administrator select when configuring vSphere permissions? (Choose
three.)
A. Inventory Object
B. Role
C. User/Group
D. Privilege
E. Password
Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
In vSphere, permission consists of a user or group and an assigned role for an inventory object, such as a
virtual machine or ESX/ESXi host. Permissions grant users the right to perform the activities specified by
the role on the object to which the role is assigned.
Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-4-esx-vcenter/index.jsp?topic=/
com.vmware.vsphere.dcadmin.doc_41/vsp_dc_admin_guide/man
aging_users_groups_roles_and_permissions/c_permissions.html

QUESTION 2
Which two methods are recommended for managing the VMware Directory Service? (Choose two.)
A. Utilize the vmdir command.
B. Manage through the vSphere Web Client.
C. Manage using the VMware Directory Service.
D. Utilize the dc rep command.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
To manage VMware directory service, you can use vmdir command and vsphere web client. VMware
directory service is always managed using vmdir command which is specifically used for directory
services.

QUESTION 3
Which password meets ESXi 6.x host password requirements?
A. 8kMVnn2x!
B. zNgtnJBA2
C. Nvgt34kn44
D. !b74wr
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A valid password requires a mix of upper and lower case letters, digits, and other characters. You can use
a 7-character long password with characters from at least three of these four classes, or a 6-character long
password containing characters from all the classes. A password that begins with an upper case letter and
ends with a numerical digit does not count towards the number of character classes used. It is
recommended that the password does not contain the username.
A passphrase requires at least 3 words, can be 8 to 40 characters long, and must contain enough different
characters.Reference:
http://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do?language=en_US&cmd=displayKC
&externalId=1012033

QUESTION 4
An administrator would like to use a passphrase for their ESXi 6.x hosts which has these characteristics:
Minimum of 21 characters
Minimum of 2 words
Which advanced options must be set to allow this passphrase configuration to be used?
A. retry=3 min=disabled, disabled, 7, 21, 7 passphrase=2
B. retry=3 min=disabled, disabled, 21, 7, 7 passphrase=2
C. retry=3 min=disabled, disabled, 2, 21, 7
D. retry=3 min=disabled, disabled, 21, 21, 2
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
To force a specific password complexity and disable all others, replace the number with the word with
disabled. For example, to force passwords containing characters from all four- character classes:
password requisite /lib/security/$ISA/pam_passwdqc.so retry=3 min=
disabled,disabled,disabled,disabled,7
Reference: http://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do? language=en_US&cmd=displayKC
&externalId=1012033

QUESTION 5
An object has inherited permissions from two parent objects.
What is true about the permissions on the object?
A. The common permissions between the two are applied and the rest are discarded.
B. The permissions are combined from both parent objects.
C. No permissions are applied from the parent objects.
D. The permission is randomly selected from either of the two parent objects.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Most inventory objects inherit permissions from a single parent object in the hierarchy. For example, a
datastore inherits permissions from either its parent datastore folder or parent datacenter. Virtual machines
inherit permissions from both the parent virtual machine folder and the parent host, cluster, or resource
pool simultaneously. To restrict a user’s privileges on a virtual machine, you must set permissions on both
the parent folder and the parent host, cluster, or resource pool for that virtual machine.
Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-4-esx-vcenter/index.jsp?topic=/
com.vmware.vsphere.dcadmin.doc_41/vsp_dc_admin_guide/man
aging_users_groups_roles_and_permissions/c_hierarchical_inheritance_of_permissions.ht ml

QUESTION 6
Which three options are available for ESXi Certificate Replacement? (Choose three.)
A. VMware Certificate Authority mode
B. Custom Certificate Authority mode
C. Thumbprint modeD. Hybrid Deployment
E. VMware Certificate Endpoint Authority Mode
Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
You can perform different types of certificate replacement depending on company policy and requirements
for the system that you are configuring. You can perform each replacement with the vSphere Certificate
Manager utility or manually by using the CLIs included with your installation.
VMCA is included in each Platform Services Controller and in each embedded deployment. VMCA
provisions each node, each vCenter Server solution user, and each ESXi host with a certificate that is
signed by VMCA as the certificate authority. vCenter Server solution users are groups of vCenter Server
services. See vSphere Security for a list of solution users.
You can replace the default certificates. For vCenter Server components, you can use a set of command-
line tools included in your installation. You have several options.
Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-60/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.install.doc%
2FGUID-4469A6D3-048A-471C- 9CB4-518A15EA2AC0.html

QUESTION 7
An administrator is able to manage an ESXi 6.x host connected to vCenter Server using the vSphere Web
Client but is unable to connect to the host directly.
Which action should the administrator take to correct this behavior?
A. Restart management agents on the ESXi host.
B. Disable Lockdown Mode on the ESXi host through vCenter Server.
C. Disable the ESXi firewall with the command esxcli network firewall unload.
D. Reboot the ESXi host.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Disable lockdown mode through the DCUI and then enable it through the vCenter Server instead. The
vCenter Server does not keep track of lockdown mode state changes that initiated outside of the vCenter
Server itself.
Reference: http://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do? language=en_US&cmd=displayKC
&externalId=2040768

QUESTION 8
Which three connection types are supported between a remote site and vCloud Air? (Choose three.)
A. Secure Internet Connectivity
B. Private Connect
C. Direct Connect
D. Internet Connectivity
E. Secure VPN
Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The connection types supported between a remote site and vcloud Air is secure VPN, direct connect and
Secure Internet Connectivity.

QUESTION 9
An administrator wants to configure an ESXi 6.x host to use Active Directory (AD) to manage users and
groups. The AD domain group ESX Admins is planned for administrative access to the host.
Which two conditions should be considered when planning this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. If administrative access for ESX Admins is not required, this setting can be altered.
B. The users in ESX Admins are not restricted by Lockdown Mode.
C. An ESXi host provisioned with Auto Deploy cannot store AD credentials.
D. The users in ESX Admins are granted administrative privileges in vCenter Server.
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The setting can be altered if administrative access for ESX admins is not required. The second rule is that
the ESX admins users should not be restricted by Lockdown mode.

QUESTION 10
An administrator wishes to give a user the ability to manage snapshots for virtual machines.
Which privilege does the administrator need to assign to the user?
A. Datastore.Allocate Space
B. Virtual machine.Configuration.create snapshot
C. Virtual machine.Configuration.manage snapshot
D. Datastore.Browse Datastore
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Datastore.Allocate space allows allocating space on a datastore for a virtual machine, snapshot, clone, or
virtual disk.
Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-51/index.jsp?topic= %2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.security.doc
%2FGUID-B2426ACC-D73F-4732-8BBC- DE9B1B2263D9.html

QUESTION 11
An administrator has configured three vCenter Servers and vRealize Orchestrator within a Platform
Services Controller domain, and needs to grant a user privileges that span all environments.
Which statement best describes how the administrator would accomplish this?
A. Assign a Global Permission to the user.
B. Assign a vCenter Permission to the user.
C. Assign vsphere.local membership to the user.
D. Assign an ESXi Permission to the user.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Global permissions are applied to a global root object that spans solutions, for example, both vCenter
Server and vCenter Orchestrator. Use global permissions to give a user or group privileges for all objects
in all object hierarchies.
Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-60/index.jsp?topic= %2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.security.doc%
2FGUID-C7702E31-1623-4189-89CB- E1136AA27972.html

QUESTION 12
Which two statements are correct regarding vSphere certificates? (Choose two.)
A. ESXi host upgrades do not preserve the SSL certificate and reissue one from the VMware Certificate
Authority (VMCA).
B. ESXi host upgrades preserve the existing SSL certificate.
C. ESXi hosts have assigned SSL certificates from the VMware Certificate Authority (VMCA) during install.
D. ESXi hosts have self-signed SSL certificates by default.
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Of course, ESXi host upgrades preserve existing SSL certificate and it also have assigned SSL certificates
from VMCA during the installation process.

QUESTION 13
An administrator is configuring the clock tolerance for the Single Sign-On token configuration policy and
wants to define the time skew tolerance between a client and the domain controller clock.
Which time measurement is used for the value?
A. Milliseconds
B. Seconds
C. Minutes
D. Hours
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The time skew tolerance between a client and the domain controller clock is measured in milliseconds.

QUESTION 14
Which three Authorization types are valid in vSphere? (Choose three.)
A. Group Membership in vsphere.local
B. Global
C. Forest
D. vCenter Server
E. Group Membership in system-domain
Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Sphere 6.0 and later allows privileged users to give other users permissions to perform tasks in the
following ways. These approaches are, for the most part, mutually exclusive; however, you can assign use
global permissions to authorize certain users for all solution, and local vCenter Server permissions to
authorize other users for individual vCenter Server systems.
vCenter ServerPermissions
The permission model for vCenter Server systems relies on assigning permissions to objects in the object
hierarchy of thatvCenter Server. Each permission gives one user or group a set of privileges, that is, a role
for a selected object. For example, you can select an ESXi host and assign a role to a group of users to
give those users the corresponding privileges on that host.
Global Permissions
Global permissions are applied to a global root object that spans solutions. For example, if both vCenter
Server and vCenter Orchestrator are installed, you can give permissions to all objects in both object
hierarchies using global permissions. Global permissions are replicated across the vsphere.local domain.
Global permissions to not provide authorization for services managed through vsphere.local groups. See
Global Permissions.Group Membership in vsphere.local Groups
The user [email protected] can perform tasks that are associated with services included with
the Platform Services Controller. In addition, members of a vsphere.local group can perform the
corresponding task. For example, you can perform license management if you are a member of the
LicenseService.Administrators group. See Groups in the vsphere.local Domain.
Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-60/index.jsp?topic= %2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.security.doc%
2FGUID-74F53189-EF41-4AC1-A78E- D25621855800.html

QUESTION 15
Which two roles can be modified? (Choose two.)
A. Administrator
B. Network Administrator
C. Datastore Consumer
D. Read-Only
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
It is a common knowledge that you cannot modify Administrator role and grant whatever privileges you like.
Same is the case with read-only. This role is created solely for ready only purposes. So you are left with
two viable options ?Network administrator and Datastore consumer both of which can be modified to add
or delete privileges according to your specifications.

QUESTION 16
An administrator would like to use the VMware Certificate Authority (VMCA) as an Intermediate Certificate
Authority (CA). The first two steps performed are:
Replace the Root Certificate
Replace Machine Certificates (Intermediate CA)
Which two steps would need to be performed next? (Choose two.)
A. Replace Solution User Certificates (Intermediate CA)
B. Replace the VMware Directory Service Certificate (Intermediate CA)
C. Replace the VMware Directory Service Certificate
D. Replace Solution User Certificates
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
You can replace the VMCA root certificate with a third-party CA-signed certificate that includes VMCA in
the certificate chain. Going forward, all certificates that VMCA generates include the full chain. You can
replace existing certificates with newly generated certificates. This approach combines the security of third-
party CA-signed certificate with the convenience of automated certificate management.
Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-60/index.jsp?topic= %2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.security.doc%
2FGUID-5FE583A2-3737-4B62- A905-5BB38D479AE0.html

QUESTION 17
Strict Lockdown Mode has been enabled on an ESXi host.
Which action should an administrator perform to allow ESXi Shell or SSH access for users with
administrator privileges?
A. Grant the users the administrator role and enable the service.
B. Add the users to Exception Users and enable the service.
C. No action can be taken, Strict Lockdown Mode prevents direct access.D. Add the users to vsphere.local and enable the service.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-60/index.jsp?topic= %2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.security.doc
%2FGUID-F8F105F7-CF93-46DF-9319- F8991839D265.html

QUESTION 18
An administrator is creating a new Content Library. It will subscribe to another remote Content Library
without authentication enabled.
What information from the published library will they need in order to complete the subscription?
A. Subscription URL
B. A security password from the publishing Content Library
C. Publisher’s Items.json file
D. Username from the publishing Content Library
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Subscription URL from the published library is needed to complete the subscription.

QUESTION 19
An administrator with global administrator privileges creates a custom role but fails to assign any privileges
to it.
Which two privileges would the custom role have? (Choose two.)
A. System.View
B. System.Anonymous
C. System.User
D. System.ReadOnly
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
When you add a custom role and do not assign any privileges to it, the role is created as a Read Only role
with three system-defined privileges: System.Anonymous, System.View, and System.Read.
Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-51/index.jsp?topic= %2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.security.doc
%2FGUID-93B962A7-93FA-4E96-B68F- AE66D3D6C663.html

QUESTION 20
An administrator runs the command esxcli storage core device list and sees the following output:
mpx.vmhba1:C0:T0:L0 Display Name: RAID 5 (mpx.vmhba1:C0:T0:L0) Has Settable Display Name: false
SizE. 40960 Device Type: Direct-Access Multipath Plugin: NMP Devfs Path: /vmfs/devices/disks/
mpx.vmhba1:C0:T0:L0 Status: off Is Local: true
What can be determined by this output?
A. The device is a being used for vFlash Read Cache.
B. The device is in a Permanent Device Loss (PDL) state.
C. The device is a local Solid State Device (SSD).
D. The device is in an All Paths Down (APD) state.Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://vmwaremine.com/2014/07/07/manage-psa-claimrules-satp-rules- esxcli/
#sthash.i6Esax8x.dpbs

QUESTION 21
Which two advanced features should be disabled for virtual machines that are only hosted on a vSphere
system? (Choose two.)
A. isolation.tools.unity.push.update.disable
B. isolation.tools.ghi.launchmenu.change
C. isolation.tools.bbs.disable
D. isolation.tools.hgfsServerSet.enable
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Because VMware virtual machines run in many VMware products in addition to vSphere, some virtual
machine parameters do not apply in a vSphere environment. Although these features do not appear in
vSphere user interfaces, disabling them reduces the number of vectors through which a guest operating
system could access a host. Use the following .vmx setting to disable these features:
isolation.tools.unity.push.update.disable = “TRUE” isolation.tools.ghi.l”unch”enu.change = “TRUE”
isolation.tools.ghi.a”tolo”on.disable = “TRUE” isolation.tools.hgfsS”rver”et.disable = “TRUE”
isolation.tools.memSc”edFa”eSampleStats.disable = “TRUE” isolation.tools.getCr”ds.d”sable = “TRUE”
Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-51/index.jsp?topic= %2Fcom.vmware.vmtools.install.doc%
2FGUID-685722FA-9009-439C-9142-18A9E7C592EA.html

QUESTION 22
Which two features are deprecated in Network I/O Control 3 (NIOC3)? (Choose two.)
A. Class Of Service (COS) Tagging
B. Bandwidth Allocation
C. User-defined network resource pools
D. Admission control
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Class of Service tagging and user-defined resource pools are deprecated in NIOC3.

QUESTION 23
Which three statements are correct regarding Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCOE)? (Choose three.)
A. The network switch must have Priority-based Flow Control (PFC) set to AUTO.
B. The network switch must have Priority-based Flow Control (PFC) set to ON.
C. Each port on the FCoE card must reside on the same vSwitch.
D. Each port on the FCoE card must reside on a separate vSwitch.
E. The ESXi host will require a reboot after moving an FCoE card to a different vSwitch.
Correct Answer: ADE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-55/index.jsp?topic= %2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.storage.doc%
2FGUID-6B49866F-7005-4099-84AC-4FB2A1A91F64.html

QUESTION 24
Which three are requirements for configuring Storage I/O Control (SIOC)? (Choose three.)
A. The datastore must consist of only one extent.
B. The datastore is managed by a single vCenter Server.
C. Auto-tiered storage must be compatable with SIOC.
D. Auto-tiered storage must be SSD or SATA.
E. The datastore must be VMFS.
Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Storage I/O Control (SIOC) is used to control the I/O usage of a virtual machine and to gradually enforce
the predefined I/O share levels. SIOC is supported on Fibre Channel and iSCSI connected storage in ESX/
ESXi 4.1 and 5.0. With ESXi 5.0 support for NFS with SIOC was also added. Datastores with multiple
extents or Raw Device Mapping (RDM) are currently not supported.
Reference: http://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do? language=en_US&cmd=displayKC
&externalId=1022091

QUESTION 25
Refer to the Exhibit.
A Storage Policy for a Virtual SAN is set to the default policy, as shown in the Exhibit.
Which change would reduce the storage consumption by one third?
A. Number of failures to tolerate = 1
B. Number of disk stripes per object = 2
C. Number of failures to tolerate = 3
D. Number of disk stripes per object = 1Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Number of failures to tolerate defines the number of host, disk, or network failures a virtual machine object
can tolerate. For n failures tolerated, n+1 copies of the virtual machine object are created and 2n+1 hosts
with storage are required.
Default value is 1. Maximum value is 3.
Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-55/index.jsp?topic= %2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.storage.doc%
2FGUID-C8E919D0-9D80-4AE1-826B- D180632775F3.html

QUESTION 26
An administrator created a six node Virtual SAN cluster, created a fault domain, and moved three of the six
nodes into that domain.
A node that is a member of the fault domain fails.
What is the expected result?
A. The remaining two fault domain members are treated as failed.
B. The remaining two fault domain members stay protected by the domain.
C. One of the non-member nodes will be automatically added to the fault domain.
D. VMware High Availability will restart virtual machines on remaining nodes in the domain.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
When the member of the fault domain fails, the remaining two fault domain members are treated as failed
too.

QUESTION 27
A device’s vStorage API for Array Integration (VAAI) support status command line output shows:
naa.500253825002a865 VAAI Plugin Name: ATS Status: unsupported Clone Status:
unsupported Zero Status: supported Delete Status: unsupported
What is the corresponding VAAI support status in the vSphere Web Client?
A. Unknown
B. Supported
C. Not supported
D. Unsupported
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The VAAI support status will be unknown.
Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-55/index.jsp?topic= %2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.storage.doc%
2FGUID-0520FD37-D7AD-4FBA-9A2E- E5F8211FCBBB.html

QUESTION 28
Where is a Virtual SAN Fault Domain configured?
A. VMware Virtual SAN Cluster configuration
B. VMware High Availability Cluster configuration
C. Distributed Resource Scheduler configurationD. Datacenter Advanced Settings configuration
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
If your Virtual SAN cluster spans across multiple racks or blade server chassis in a data center and you
want to make sure that your hosts are protected against rack or chassis failure, you can create fault
domains and add one or more hosts to it.
A fault domain consists of one or more Virtual SAN hosts grouped together according to their physical
location in the data center. When configured, fault domains enable Virtual SAN to tolerate failures of entire
physical rack as well as failures of a single host, capacity device, network link or a network switch
dedicated to fault domains. Fault domains cannot be configured for stretched or metro clusters.
The number of failures your cluster can tolerate depends on the number of failures a virtual machine is
provisioned to tolerate. For example, when a virtual machine is configured with Number of failures to
tolerate=1 and using multiple fault domains, Virtual SAN can tolerate a single failure of any kind and of any
component in a fault domain, including the failure of an entire rack.
When you configure fault domains on a rack and provision a new virtual machine, Virtual SAN ensures that
protection objects, such as replicas and witnesses are placed on different fault domains. If, for example, a
virtual machine’s storage policy is Number of failures to tolerate=n, Virtual SAN requires a minimum of 2*n
+1 fault domains in the cluster. When virtual machines are provisioned in a cluster with fault domains using
this policy, the copies of the associated virtual machine objects are stored across separate racks.
Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-60/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.virtualsan.doc
%2FGUID-8491C4B0-6F94- 4023-8C7A-FD7B40D0368D.html

QUESTION 29
What are two use cases for Fibre Channel Zoning in a vSphere environment? (Choose two.)
A. Increases the number of targets presented to an ESXi host.
B. Controls and isolates paths in a fabric.
C. Controls and isolates paths to an NFS share.
D. Can be used to separate different environments.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Zoning provides access control in the SAN topology. Zoning defines which HBAs can connect to which
targets. When you configure a SAN by using zoning, the devices outside a zone are not visible to the
devices inside the zone.
Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-55/index.jsp?topic= %2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.storage.doc%
2FGUID-E7818A5D-6BD7-4F51-B4BA- EFBF2D3A8357.html

QUESTION 30
Which two statements are true regarding VMFS3 volumes in ESXi 6.x? (Choose two.)
A. Creation of VMFS3 volumes is unsupported.
B. Upgrading VMFS3 volumes to VMFS5 is supported.
C. Existing VMFS3 volumes are unsupported.
D. Upgrading VMFS3 volumes to VMFS5 is unsupported.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
While a VMFS-3, which is upgraded to VMFS-5, provides you with most of the capabilities as a newly
created VMFS-5, there are some differences. Both upgraded and newly created VMFS-5 support single-extent volumes up to 64TB and both support VMDK sizes of ~2TB, no matter what the VMFS file-block
size is. However additional differences, although minor, should be considered when making a decision
whether to upgrade to VMFS-5 or create new VMFS-5 volumes.
Reference: http://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/techpaper/ VMFS-5_Upgrade_Considerations.pdf

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 210-255 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-15)

QUESTION 1
Which network device creates and sends the initial packet of a session?
A. source
B. origination
C. destination
D. network
210-255 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
In the context of incident handling phases, which two activities fall under scoping? (Choose two.)
A. determining the number of attackers that are associated with a security incident
B. ascertaining the number and types of vulnerabilities on your network
C. identifying the extent that a security incident is impacting protected resources on the network
D. determining what and how much data may have been affected
E. identifying the attackers that are associated with a security incident
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 3
Which string matches the regular expression r(ege)+x?
A. rx
B. regeegex
C. r(ege)x
D. rege+x
210-255 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which source provides reports of vulnerabilities in software and hardware to a Security Operations Center?
A. Analysis Center
B. National CSIRT
C. Internal CSIRT
D. Physical Security
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
From a security perspective, why is it important to employ a clock synchronization protocol on a network?
A. so that everyone knows the local time
B. to ensure employees adhere to work schedule
C. to construct an accurate timeline of events when responding to an incident
D. to guarantee that updates are pushed out according to schedule
210-255 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which element is part of an incident response plan?
A. organizational approach to incident response
B. organizational approach to security
C. disaster recovery
D. backups
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What mechanism does the Linux operating system provide to control access to files?
A. privileges required
B. user interaction
C. file permissions
D. access complexity
210-255 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
210-255
You notice that the email volume history has been abnormally high.
Which potential result is true?
A. Email sent from your domain might be filtered by the recipient.
B. Messages sent to your domain may be queued up until traffic dies down.
C. Several hosts in your network may be compromised.
D. Packets may be dropped due to network congestion.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
210-255 dumps
Which type of log is this an example of?
A. IDS log
B. proxy log
C. NetFlow log
D. syslog
210-255 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
210-255 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from this ping result?
A. The public IP address of cisco.com is 2001:420:1101:1::a.
B. The Cisco.com website is down.
C. The Cisco.com website is responding with an internal IP.
D. The public IP address of cisco.com is an IPv4 address.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which option has a drastic impact on network traffic because it can cause legitimate traffic to be blocked?
A. true positive
B. true negative
C. false positive
D. false negative
210-255 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You have run a suspicious file in a sandbox analysis tool to see what the file does. The analysis report shows that outbound callouts were made post infection. Which two pieces of information from the analysis report are needed or required to investigate the callouts? (Choose two.)
A. file size
B. domain names
C. dropped files
D. signatures
E. host IP addresses
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 13
Which goal of data normalization is true?
A. Reduce data redundancy.
B. Increase data redundancy.
C. Reduce data availability.
D. Increase data availability
210-255 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which CVSSv3 metric value increases when the attacker is able to modify all files protected by the vulnerable component?
A. confidentiality
B. integrity
C. availability
D. complexity
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
210-255 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of log is this an example of?
A. syslog
B. NetFlow log
C. proxy log
D. IDS log
210-255 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which type of analysis allows you to see how likely an exploit could affect your network?
A. descriptive
B. casual
C. probabilistic
D. inferential
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which type of analysis assigns values to scenarios to see what the outcome might be in each scenario?
A. deterministic
B. exploratory
C. probabilistic
D. descriptive
210-255 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which description of a retrospective maKvare detection is true?
A. You use Wireshark to identify the malware source.
B. You use historical information from one or more sources to identify the affected host or file.
C. You use information from a network analyzer to identify the malware source.
D. You use Wireshark to identify the affected host or file.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which two components are included in a 5-tuple? (Choose two.)
A. port number
B. destination IP address
C. data packet
D. user name
E. host logs
210-255 dumps Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 20
Which CVSSv3 metric value increases when attacks consume network bandwidth, processor cycles, or disk space?
A. confidentiality
B. integrity
C. availability
D. complexity
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
You see confidential data being exfiltrated to an IP address that is attributed to a known Advanced Persistent Threat group. Assume that this is part of a real attach and not a network misconfiguration. Which category does this event fall under as defined in the Diamond Model of Intrusion?
A. reconnaissance
B. weaponization
C. delivery
D. action on objectives
210-255 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which regular expression matches “color” and “colour”?
A. col[0-9]+our
B. colo?ur
C. colou?r
D. ]a-z]{7}
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
Which feature is used to find possible vulnerable services running on a server?
A. CPU utilization
B. security policy
C. temporary internet files
D. listening ports
210-255 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Which element is included in an incident response plan?
A. organization mission
B. junior analyst approval
C. day-to-day firefighting
D. siloed approach to communications
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Drag and drop the type of evidence from the left onto the correct descnption(s) of that evidence on the right.
Select and Place:
210-255 dumps
210-255 exam Correct Answer:

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the element name from the left onto the correct piece of the NetFlow v5 record from a security event on the right.

Select and Place:

210-255 dumps Correct Answer:

QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the element name from the left onto the correct piece of the PCAP file on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 28
Drag and drop the elements of incident handling from the left into the correct order on the right.
Select and Place:
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210-255 pdf Correct Answer:
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