Cisco

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Cisco exam certification information

Advanced Collaboration Architecture Specialization Requirements: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en_us/partners/partner_with_cisco/channel_partner_program/specializations/adv-coll-arch-spec-partner-req_etme_en.pdf

Cisco Collaboration Servers and Appliances Role 500-325 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which purpose of the Call Service Connect of Cisco Spark Hybrid is true?
A. It makes Cisco Spark aware of calls placed between VCS devices
B. It integrates Cisco Spark with Cisco UCM to connect calls
C. It integrates Cisco Spark with Cisco VCS to connect calls
D. It makes Cisco Spark aware of calls placed between UCM, or between HCS, devices
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collaboration/webex-hybrid-services/call-service.html

 

QUESTION 2
Which appliance comes with Cisco UC Virtualization Hypervisor Plus software?
A. BE4000
B. BE6000
C. 3rd-party Specs-based server
D. BE7000
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/BE6000/InstallationGuide/11_6/cucm_b_install-guide-cbe-6000-hm/cucm_b_install-guide-cbe-6000-hm_chapter_010.html#CUCM_TK_AD1A939F_00

 

QUESTION 3
Which software is an eDelivery, field-uploaded license?
A. Cisco TelePresence Virtualization
B. Cisco UC Virtualization Hypervisor Plus
C. Cisco UC Virtualization Foundation
D. VMware vSphere ESXi
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
In the KVM console, which result occurs if the first default is used and network does not have IPv6 configured?
A. KVM switches to IPv4.
B. KVM prompts the admin to enable IPv6.
C. KVM moves to the next default option listed.
D. KVM fails to launch.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
Which type of processing do DSS applications use to perform operations?
A. Parallel
B. Batch
C. Multiplex
D. Linear
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/servers-unified-computing/ucs-b-series-blade-servers/whitepaper_c11-727827.pdf

 

QUESTION 6
Which features are offered by the Cisco BE4000 appliance?
A. premises-based management
B. cloud-hosted management
C. cloud-hosted server
D. 400 premises-based phones
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/unified-communications/business-edition-4000/datasheet-c78-738497.html

 

QUESTION 7
When deploying an OVA Template, which option is used to allocate storage on demand as data is written to disk?
A. Thick Provisioned (Lazy Zeroed) format
B. Thin Provisioned format
C. Medium Provisioned format
D. Thick Provisioned (Eager Zeroed) format
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-4-esx-vcenter/index.jsp?topic=/com.vmware.vsphere.vmadmin.doc_41/vsp_vm_guide/working_with_ovf_templates/t_import_a_virtual_appliance.html

 

QUESTION 8
Which software changes can be required by Cisco TAC to enable third-party Specs-based solution troubleshooting?
A. Consolidate distributed UC applications.
B. Move all critical VMs to the same host server.
C. Consolidate more VMs onto the same server.
D. Temporarily power-down noncritical VMs.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/voice-unified-communications/unified-communications-system/115955-uc-specs-tshoot-00.pdf (p.6)

 

QUESTION 9
How many collaboration applications does the Cisco BE7000H appliance support?
A. eight or ten
B. nine fixed
C. five to ten
D. four or six
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/unified-communications/business-edition-7000/data-sheet-c78-730649.html

 

QUESTION 10
What is the minimum number of blades you must purchase with the CMS2000 server?
A. 10
B. 4
C. 1
D. 8
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/conferencing/ciscoMeetingServer/Installation/Cisco-Meeting-Server-2000-Installation-Guide.pdf

 

QUESTION 11
Which option is the maximum capacity of a Cisco BE7000 appliance deployment?
A. 10000
B. 5000
C. 1000
D. no enforced limit
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/unified-communications/business-edition-7000/data-sheet-c78-730649.html

 

QUESTION 12
Which guideline for SAN and NAS storage arrays is true?
A. Design your deployment in accordance with the Cisco UCS high availability guideline.
B. Adapters for storage access do not follow hardware rules.
C. Ethernet ports for LAN access and Ethernet ports for storage may only be separate.
D. Cisco UC apps use a 24 kilobyte block size to determine bandwidth needs.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/uc_system/virtualization/virtualization-collaboration-storage-design-requirements.html

 

QUESTION 13
Which option do you use to select menu items in the Console window?
A. stylus
B. keyboard keys
C. voice command
D. mouse pointer
Correct Answer: D

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MTA

Get the latest Microsoft MTA 98-367 dumps and 98-367 pdf, pass exam certification

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Exam 98-367: Security fundamentals – Microsoft: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-98-367.aspx
This exam validates that a candidate has fundamental security knowledge and skills. It can serve as a stepping stone to the Microsoft Certified Solutions Associate (MCSA) exams. It is recommended that candidates become familiar with the concepts and the technologies described here by taking relevant training courses. Candidates are expected to have some hands-on experience with Windows Server, Windows-based networking, Active Directory, anti-malware products, firewalls, network topologies and devices, and network ports.

pass4itsure 98-367 exam Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Understand security layers (25–30%)
  • Understand operating system security (35-40%)
  • Understand network security (20–25%)
  • Understand security software (15–20%)

The latest Microsoft MTA 98-367 exam practice questions test your strength

QUESTION 1
You need to prevent unauthorized users from reading a specific file on a portable computer if the portable computer is
stolen.
What should you implement?
A. File-level permissions
B. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
C. Folder-level permissions
D. Distributed File System (DFS)
E. BitLocker
Correct Answer: E
Reference: http://4sysops.com/archives/seven-reasons-why-you-need-bitlocker-hard-drive-encryption-for-your-whole-organization/

 

QUESTION 2
By default, what level of security is set for the Local intranet zone?
A. High-Medium
B. Medium-Low
C. High
D. Low
Correct Answer: B
The default security level of the Local intranet zone is Medium-Low. Internet Explorer (IE) allows configuring different
levels of security for different types of Web sites by segmenting them into the following security zone:
Local Intranet: IE can be configured to detect intranet sites automatically. Users can add Web sites to this zone through
Local Intranet sites dialog box. Protected Mode is not enabled for sites in this zone. The default security level of this
zone
is Medium- Low.
Trusted Sites: Putting sites in the Trusted Sites zone often provide elevated privileges. The default security level for this
zone is Medium. Restricted Sites: Potentially malicious sites are put in this zone. The default security level for this zone
is
High. Protected Mode is enabled by default for sites in this zone. Internet: The sites that are not contained in other
zones are automatically hosted in this zone. Sites in this zone are blocked from viewing private data from other Web
sites. The
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default security level of this zone is Medium-High. Protected Mode is enabled by default for sites in this zone.
The three default security levels are Medium, Medium-High, and High.

 

QUESTION 3
Humongous Insurance is an online healthcare insurance company. During an annual security audit a security firm tests
the strength of the company\\’s password policy and suggests that Humongous Insurance implement password history
policy.
What is the likely reason that the security firm suggests this?
A. Past passwords were easily cracked by the brute force method.
B. Past passwords of users contained dictionary words.
C. Previous password breaches involved use of past passwords.
D. Past passwords lacked complexity and special characters.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
Which of the following types of attack is used to configure a computer to behave as another computer on a trusted
network by using the IP address or the physical address?
A. Distributed denial of service (DDOS) attack
B. Honeypot
C. RIP/SAP Spoofing
D. Identity spoofing
Correct Answer: D
Identity spoofing (IP address spoofing) will occur when the attacker wants to use an IP address of a network, computer,
or network component without being authorized for this task. It allows the unprivileged code to use someone else\\’s
identity, and use their security credentials Answer: B is incorrect. A honey pot is a computer that is used to attract
potential intruders or attackers. It is for this reason that a honey pot has low security permissions. A honey pot is used to
gain information about the intruders and their attack strategies. Answer: C is incorrect. RIP and SAP are used to
broadcast network information in a regular way regardless of no changes in the routing or service tables. RIP/SAP
spoofing method is used to intercept the SAP and RIP broadcasts by using a spoofing modem/router, and then re-
broadcast network information via its own routing table or service table. Answer: A is incorrect. In the distributed denial
of service (DDOS) attack, an attacker uses multiple computers throughout the network that it has previously infected.
Such computers act as zombies and work together to send out bogus messages, thereby increasing the amount of
phony traffic. The major advantages to an attacker of using a distributed denial-of-service attack are that multiple
machines can generate more attack traffic than one machine, multiple attack machines are harder to turn off than one
attack machine, and that the behavior of each attack machine can be stealthier, making it harder to track down and shut
down. TFN, TRIN00, etc. are tools used for the DDoS attack.


QUESTION 5
Keeping a server updated:
A. Maximizes network efficiency
B. Fixes security holes
C. Speeds up folder access
D. Synchronizes the server
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
The company that you work for wants to set up a secure network, but they do not have any servers. Which three
security methods require the use of a server? (Choose three.)
A. 802.1x
B. WPA2 Personal
C. WPA2 Enterprise
D. RADIUS
E. 802.11ac
Correct Answer: ACD

 

QUESTION 7
A mail system administrator scans for viruses in incoming emails to increase the speed of mail processing.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if
the underlined text makes the statement correct.
A. Decrease the chances of a virus getting to a client machine
B. Verify that the senders of the messages are legitimate
C. Ensure that all links in the messages are trustworthy
D. No change is needed.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
Sam works as a Web Developer for McRobert Inc. He wants to control the way in which a Web browser receives
information and downloads content from Web sites. Which of the following browser settings will Sam use to accomplish
this?
A. Security
B. Certificate
C. Cookies
D. Proxy server
Correct Answer: A
The Web browser\\’s Security setting controls the way in which a Web browser receives information and downloads
content from Web sites. In Internet Explorer, users can access the Security setting from Tools menu > Internet Options
>
Security tab page.
Answer: C is incorrect. A cookie is a small bit of text that accompanies requests and pages as they move between Web
servers and browsers. It contains information that is read by a Web application, whenever a user visits a site. Cookies
are
stored in the memory or hard disk of client computers. A Web site stores information, such as user preferences and
settings in a cookie. This information helps in providing customized services to users. There is absolutely no way a
Web
server can access any private information about a user or his computer through cookies, unless a user provides the
information. The Web server cannot access cookies created by other Web servers. Answer: D is incorrect. Proxy server
setting is used to connect to the Internet through a proxy server.

 

QUESTION 9
Mark works as a Systems Administrator for TechMart Incl. The company has Windows-based network. Mark has been
assigned a project to track who tries to log into the system and the time of the day at which the attempts occur. He is
also required to create a system to track when confidential files are opened and who is trying to open it. Now, Mark logs
when someone is not able to make a successful attempt to log into the system as Administrator but he also wants to log
when the user is successful to log into the system as Administrator. Which of the following is the reason of logging by
Mark when a user is successfully logged into the system as well as when he is failed?
A. To determine if and when someone is authenticating successfully with high privilege.
B. To make sure that user is not using the Administrator account.
C. To determine if and when someone is authenticating successfully with high privilege.
D. To make sure that user is not facing any problem.
Correct Answer: C
In the above scenario, Mark is required to determine if and when someone is able to be authenticated successfully with
high privilege as well as the hacker activity. If any user was failed for a number of times and was then successful any
attempt, it can be a hacker activity. That\\’s why Mark logs when a user is successfully logged into the system as well as
when he is failed.


QUESTION 10
You have an application that uses IPsec to secure communications between an Internet client and a server on the
internal network.
To which network security service must the IPsec client connect?
A. SFTP
B. SSH
C. VPN
D. RADIUS
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
Which of the following is a method of capturing and recording computer users\\’ keystrokes including sensitive
passwords?
A. Using hardware keyloggers
B. Using Alchemy Remote Executor
C. Using SocketShield
D. Using Anti-virus software
Correct Answer: A
Hardware keyloggers are used for keystroke logging, a method of capturing and recording computer users\\’ keystrokes,
including sensitive passwords. They can be implemented via BIOS-level firmware, or alternatively, via a device plugged
inline between a computer keyboard and
a computer. They log all keyboard activities to their internal memory. Answer: D is incorrect. Anti-Virus software is used
to prevent, detect, and remove malware, including computer viruses, worms, and trojan horses. Such programs may
also
prevent and remove adware, spyware, and other forms of malware.
Anti-Virus software is a class of program that searches your hard drive, floppy drive, and pen drive for any known or
potential viruses. The market for this kind of program has expanded because of Internet growth and the increasing use
of the
Internet by businesses concerned about protecting their computer assets. Popular Anti-Virus packages are as follows:
Bit Defender Anti-Virus McAfee Virus Scan Kaspersky Anti-Virus F-Secure Anti-Virus Symantec Norton Anti-Virus
Panda
Titanium Anti-Virus Avira Anti-Virus Avast Anti-Virus Trend Micro Anti-Virus Grisoft AVG Anti-Virus ESET Nod32 Anti-
Virus Webroot Anti-Virus Quick Heal Anti-Virus eTrust EZ Anti-Virus ZoneAlarm Anti-Virus
Answer: B is incorrect. Alchemy Remote Executor is a system management tool that allows Network Administrators to
execute programs on remote network computers without leaving their workplace. From the hacker\\’s point of view, it
can be
useful for installing keyloggers, spyware, Trojans, Windows rootkits and such. One necessary condition for using the
Alchemy Remote Executor is that the user/attacker must have the administrative passwords of the remote computers
on
which the malware is to be installed.
Answer: C is incorrect. SocketShield provides a protection shield to a computer system against malware, viruses,
spyware, and various types of keyloggers. SocketShield provides protection at the following two levels:
1.Blocking: In this level, SocketShield uses a list of IP addresses that are known as purveyor of exploits. All http
requests for any page in these domains are simply blocked.
2.Shielding: In this level, SocketShield blocks all the current and past IP addresses that are the cause of unauthorized
access.

 

QUESTION 12
You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. Your computer has the Windows 2000 Server operating system.
You want to harden the security of the server. Which of the following changes are required to accomplish this? Each
correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Enable the Guest account.
B. Rename the Administrator account.
C. Remove the Administrator account.
D. Disable the Guest account.
Correct Answer: BD
Answer: B and D For security, you will have to rename the Administrator account and disable the Guest account.
Renaming the Administrator account will ensure that hackers do not break into the network or computer by guessing the
password of the Administrator account. You can also create a fake Administrator account that has no privileges and
audit its use to detect attacks. Disabling the Guest account will prevent users who do not have a domain or local user
account from illegally accessing the network or computer. By default, the Guest account is disabled on systems running
Windows 2000 Server. If the Guest account is enabled, you will have to disable it.

 

QUESTION 13
The stronger password is a critical element in the security plan. Which of the following are the characteristics used to
make up a strong password?
A. It contains more than seven hundred characters and does not contain the user name, real name, or any name that
can be guessed by the attacker easily.
B. It contains more than seven characters and does not contain the user name, real name, or anyname that can be
guessed by the attacker easily.
C. It contains the user name, real name, or any name that can be remembered easily and does not contain more than
seven characters.
D. It contains more than seven characters and the user name, real name, or any name.
Correct Answer: B
A strong password contains more than seven characters and does not contain the user name, real name, or any name
that can be guessed by the attacker easily.

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VMware

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QUESTION 1
Which two roles can be modified? (Choose two.)
A. Administrator
B. Network Administrator
C. Datastore Consumer
D. Read-Only
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
An administrator wishes to give a user the ability to manage snapshots for virtual machines.
Which privilege does the administrator need to assign to the user?
A. Datastore.Allocate Space
B. Virtual machine.Configuration.create snapshot
C. Virtual machine.Configuration.manage snapshot
D. Datastore.Browse Datastore
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
What is the highest object level from which a virtual machine can inherit privileges?
A. Host Folder
B. Data Center
C. Data Center Folder
D. VM Folder
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
In which two vsphere.local groups should an administrator avoid adding members? (Choose two.)
A. SolutionUsers
B. Administrators
C. DCAdmins
D. ExternalPDUsers
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
Which three services can be enabled/disabled in the Security Profile for an ESXi host? (Choose three.)
A. CIM Server
B. Single Sign-On
C. Direct Console UI
D. Syslog Server
E. vSphere Web Access
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 6
Strict Lockdown Mode has been enabled on an ESXi host.Which action should an administrator perform to allow ESXi Shell or SSH access for users with
administrator privileges?
A. Grant the users the administrator role and enable the service.
B. Add the users to Exception Users and enable the service.
C. No action can be taken, Strict Lockdown Mode prevents direct access.
D. Add the users to vsphere.local and enable the service.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which two groups of settings should be reviewed when attempting to increase the security of virtual
machines (VMs)? (Choose two.)
A. Disable hardware devices
B. Disable unexposed features
C. Disable VMtools devices
D. Disable VM Template features
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
An administrator would like to use a passphrase for their ESXi 6.x hosts which has these characteristics:
Minimum of 21 characters
Minimum of 2 words
Which advanced options must be set to allow this passphrase configuration to be used?
A. retry=3 min=disabled, disabled, 7, 21, 7 passphrase=2
B. retry=3 min=disabled, disabled, 21, 7, 7 passphrase=2
C. retry=3 min=disabled, disabled, 2, 21, 7
D. retry=3 min=disabled, disabled, 21, 21, 2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
An administrator has recently audited the environment and found numerous virtual machines with sensitive
data written to the configuration files.
To prevent this in the future, which advanced parameter should be applied to the virtual machines?
A. isolation.tools.setinfo.disable = true
B. isolation.tools.setinfo.enable = true
C. isolation.tools.setinfo.disable = false
D. isolation.tools.setinfo.enable = false
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
When attempting to log in with the vSphere Web Client, users have reported the error:
Incorrect Username/Password
The administrator has configured the Platform Services Controller Identity Source as:
Type. Active Directory as an LDAP Server
Domain: vmware.com
Alias: VMWAREDefault Domain: Yes
Which two statements would explain why users cannot login to the vSphere Web Client? (Choose two.)
A. Users are typing the password incorrectly.
B. Users are in a forest that has 1-way trust.
C. Users are in a forest that has 2-way trust.
D. Users are logging into vCenter Server with incorrect permissions.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
An administrator needs to create an Integrated Windows Authentication (IWA) Identity Source on a newly
deployed vCenter Server Appliance (VCSA).
Which two actions will accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. Use a Service Principal Name (SPN) to configure the Identity Source.
B. Use a Domain administrator to configure the Identity Source.
C. Join the VCSA to Active Directory and configure the Identity Source with a Machine Account.
D. Create a computer account in Active Directory for the VCSA and configure the Identity Source.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12
An administrator is building a large virtual machine that will require as many vCPUs as the host can
support. An ESXi 6.x host has these specifications:
Six 32-core Intel Xeon Processors
256 GB of Memory
512 GB Local disk space using VMFS5
What is the maximum number of virtual CPUs that the virtual machine can be allocated?
A. 64
B. 128
C. 192
D. 256
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
An administrator is creating a new Content Library. It will subscribe to another remote Content Library
without authentication enabled.
What information from the published library will they need in order to complete the subscription ?
A. Subscription URL
B. A security password from the publishing Content Library
C. Publisher’s Items.json file
D. Username from the publishing Content Library
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
A user notifies an administrator that Content Libraries are not visible.
What is a possible solution?A. Assign the user the read-only role at the global permission level.
B. Assign the user the read-only role at the vCenter Server root level.
C. Assign the user the read-only role at the vCenter Server data center level.
D. Assign the user the read-only role at the vCenter Server cluster level.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
An administrator subscribes to the vCloud Air Disaster Recovery service.
Which replicated objects can be directly monitored and managed?
A. Virtual machine Snapshots
B. vApps
C. Virtual machines
D. ESXi Hosts
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which secondary Private VLAN (PVLAN) type can communicate and send packets to an Isolated PVLAN?
A. Community
B. Isolated
C. Promiscuous
D. Primary
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
What are two limitations of Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) on a vSphere Distributed Switch?
(Choose two.)
A. IP Hash load balancing is not a supported Teaming Policy.
B. Software iSCSI multipathing is not compatible.
C. Link Status Network failover detection must be disabled.
D. It does not support configuration through Host Profiles.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 18
An administrator runs the command esxcli storage core device list and sees the following output:
mpx.vmhba1:C0:T0:L0 Display Name: RAID 5 (mpx.vmhba1:C0:T0:L0) Has Settable Display Name: false
SizE. 40960 Device Type: Direct-Access Multipath Plugin: NMP Devfs Path:
/vmfs/devices/disks/mpx.vmhba1:C0:T0:L0 Status: off Is Local: true
What can be determined by this output?
A. The device is a being used for vFlash Read Cache.
B. The device is in a Permanent Device Loss (PDL) state.
C. The device is a local Solid State Device (SSD).
D. The device is in an All Paths Down (APD) state.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which two considerations should an administrator keep in mind when booting from Software Fiber Channelover Ethernet (FCoE)? (Choose two.)
A. Software FCoE boot configuration can be changed from within ESXi.
B. Software FCoE boot firmware cannot export information in FBFT format.
C. Multipathing is not supported at pre-boot.
D. Boot LUN cannot be shared with other hosts even on shared storage.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 20
Which two statements are true regarding VMFS3 volumes in ESXi 6.x? (Choose two.)
A. Creation of VMFS3 volumes is unsupported.
B. Upgrading VMFS3 volumes to VMFS5 is supported.
C. Existing VMFS3 volumes are unsupported.
D. Upgrading VMFS3 volumes to VMFS5 is unsupported.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 21
Where is a Virtual SAN Fault Domain configured?
A. VMware Virtual SAN Cluster configuration
B. VMware High Availability Cluster configuration
C. Distributed Resource Scheduler configuration
D. Datacenter Advanced Settings configuration
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which two tasks does the Pluggable Storage Architecture (PSA) perform? (Choose two.)
A. Handles I/O queueing to the logical devices.
B. Handles physical path discovery, but is not involved in the removal.
C. Handles physical path discovery and removal.
D. Handles I/O queueing to FC storage HBAs.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 23
What is the command to list multipathing modules on an ESXi 6.x host?
A. esxcli storage core list plugin –plugin-class=MP
B. esxcli storage core list plugin –class-plugin=MP
C. esxcli storage core plugin list –plugin-class=MP
D. esxcli storage core plugin list –class-plugin=MP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Refer to the Exhibit.
pass4itsure 2V0-621 question
What will be the result of selecting the highlighted device?
A. Datastore will grow up to 200.01GB using the remaining free space on the device.
B. Datastore will add 200.01GB by adding the device as a second extent.
C. The device size can be expanded to be larger than 200.01 GB in size.
D. The device is not suitable for this operation.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Refer to the Exhibit.
pass4itsure 2V0-621 question
An administrator wishes to provide Load Balanced I/O for the device shown in the Exhibit.
To meet this requirement, which setting should be changed?A. Storage Array Type Policy = VMW_NMP_RR
B. Path Selection Policy = Round Robin (VMware)
C. Storage Array Type Policy = VMW_SATP_RR
D. Path Selection Policy = MRU (VMware)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
Which file determines the location of the installation script during a scripted upgrade?
A. boot.cfg
B. ks.cfg
C. script.cfg
D. upgrade.cfg
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
What are three recommended prerequisites before upgrading virtual machine hardware? (Choose three.)
A. Create a backup or snapshot of the virtual machine.
B. Upgrade VMware Tools to the latest version.
C. Verify that the virtual machine is stored on VMFS3, VMFS5, or NFS datastores.
D. Detach all CD-ROM/ISO images from the virtual machines.
E. Set the Advanced Parameter virtualHW.version = 11
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 28
When upgrading vCenter Server, an administrator notices that the upgrade fails at the vCenter Single
Sign-On installation.
What must be done to allow the upgrade to complete?
A. Verify that the VMware Directory service can stop by manually restarting it.
B. Verify that the vCenter Single Sign-On service can stop by manually restarting it.
C. Uninstall vCenter Single Sign-On service.
D. Uninstall the VMware Directory service.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
An administrator is upgrading vCenter Server and sees this error:
The DB User entered does not have the required permissions needed to install and configure vCenter
Server with the selected DB.
Please correct the following error(s): %s
Which two statements explain this error? (Choose two.)
A. The database is set to an unsupported compatibility mode.
B. The permissions for the database are incorrect.
C. The permissions for vCenter Server are incorrect.
D. The database server service has stopped.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 30
Which log file would you examine to identify an issue which occurred during the pre-upgrade phase of a
vCenter Server upgrade process?
A. vcdb_req.out
B. vcdb_export.out
C. vcdb_import.out
D. vcdb_inplace.out
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 31
A vSphere Replication user needs to connect a source site to a target site.
What privilege is needed at both sites?
A. VRM remote.Manage VRM
B. VRM datastore mapper.Manage
C. Host.vSphere Replication.Manage replication
D. Virtual machine.vSphere Replication.Manage replication
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
Which keystore would a vSphere Replication administrator use to manually add an additional Certificate
Authority certificate?
A. hms-truststore.jks
B. hms-keystore.jks
C. certificates.ks
D. cacerts.ks
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 33
What is the compression algorithm used by vSphere Replication to compress data at the source?
A. FastLZ
B. Lz4
C. Lzr
D. Lzx
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 34
Refer to the Exhibit.
pass4itsure 2V0-621 question
An administrator is attempting to enable Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC), but receives the error
shown in the Exhibit.
Which condition would explain the error?
A. The ESXi hosts are not licensed for EVC.
B. The administrator does not have privileges to enable EVC.
C. The ESXi host CPU has the Intel No-Execute feature disabled.
D. The administrator has turned on Intel Virtualization Technology.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 35
An administrator notices that the time on an ESXi 6.x host is incorrect.
Which two actions should the administrator take to correct this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Modify the time for the host using the vSphere client.
B. Correct the NTP settings in the /etc/ntp.conf file.
C. Configure NTP from the Direct Console User Interface.
D. Use the vicfg-ntp command from the vSphere Management Appliance.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 36
An administrator decides to change the root password for an ESXi 6.x host to comply with the company’s
security policies.
What are two ways that this can be accomplished? (Choose two.)
A. Use the Direct Console User Interface to change the password.
B. Use the passwd command in the ESXi Shell.
C. Use the password command in the ESXi Shell.
D. Use the vSphere client to update local users.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 37
An administrator creates a custom ESXi firewall rule using an XML file, however the rules do not appear in
the vSphere Web Client.
Which action should the administrator take to correct the problem?
A. Load the new rules using esxcli network firewall reload.
B. Load the new rules using esxcli network firewall refresh.
C. Verify the entries in the XML file and then reboot the ESXi host.D. Remove the ESXi host from the inventory and add it back.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 38
An administrator wants to power on a virtual machine (VM) while connected to an ESXi host using SSH.
The VM has the following Name and ID:
VM Name = SQL001
VMID = 12345
Which command would successfully power on the virtual machine?
A. vim-cmd vmsvc/power.on 12345
B. vim-cmd vmsvc/power.on SQL001
C. vmware-vim-cmd vmsvc/power.on 12345
D. vmware-vim-cmd vmsvc/power.on SQL001
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 39
What will occur if the .nvram file is deleted from a powered off virtual machine?
A. The .nvram file will get created the next time the virtual machine is powered on.
B. Restoring the file from backup is needed to allow the virtual machine to power on.
C. The virtual machine will fail to power on and enter an Orphaned state.
D. The virtual machine will fail to power on and enter an Inaccessible state.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 40
An administrator tries to connect the vSphere 5.5 Client to an ESXi 6.x host.
What will happen when this takes place?
A. The operation will fail, since the vSphere Client is deprecated in vSphere 6.x.
B. The operation will fail and the administrator will need to delete the client and install the 6.x version.
C. The operation will prompt the administrator to run a script to upgrade the vSphere Client.
D. The operation will update the vSphere Client silently in the background, then connect.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which three components should an administrator select when configuring vSphere permissions? (Choose
three.)
A. Inventory Object
B. Role
C. User/Group
D. Privilege
E. Password
Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
In vSphere, permission consists of a user or group and an assigned role for an inventory object, such as a
virtual machine or ESX/ESXi host. Permissions grant users the right to perform the activities specified by
the role on the object to which the role is assigned.
Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-4-esx-vcenter/index.jsp?topic=/
com.vmware.vsphere.dcadmin.doc_41/vsp_dc_admin_guide/man
aging_users_groups_roles_and_permissions/c_permissions.html

QUESTION 2
Which two methods are recommended for managing the VMware Directory Service? (Choose two.)
A. Utilize the vmdir command.
B. Manage through the vSphere Web Client.
C. Manage using the VMware Directory Service.
D. Utilize the dc rep command.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
To manage VMware directory service, you can use vmdir command and vsphere web client. VMware
directory service is always managed using vmdir command which is specifically used for directory
services.

QUESTION 3
Which password meets ESXi 6.x host password requirements?
A. 8kMVnn2x!
B. zNgtnJBA2
C. Nvgt34kn44
D. !b74wr
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A valid password requires a mix of upper and lower case letters, digits, and other characters. You can use
a 7-character long password with characters from at least three of these four classes, or a 6-character long
password containing characters from all the classes. A password that begins with an upper case letter and
ends with a numerical digit does not count towards the number of character classes used. It is
recommended that the password does not contain the username.
A passphrase requires at least 3 words, can be 8 to 40 characters long, and must contain enough different
characters.Reference:
http://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do?language=en_US&cmd=displayKC
&externalId=1012033

QUESTION 4
An administrator would like to use a passphrase for their ESXi 6.x hosts which has these characteristics:
Minimum of 21 characters
Minimum of 2 words
Which advanced options must be set to allow this passphrase configuration to be used?
A. retry=3 min=disabled, disabled, 7, 21, 7 passphrase=2
B. retry=3 min=disabled, disabled, 21, 7, 7 passphrase=2
C. retry=3 min=disabled, disabled, 2, 21, 7
D. retry=3 min=disabled, disabled, 21, 21, 2
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
To force a specific password complexity and disable all others, replace the number with the word with
disabled. For example, to force passwords containing characters from all four- character classes:
password requisite /lib/security/$ISA/pam_passwdqc.so retry=3 min=
disabled,disabled,disabled,disabled,7
Reference: http://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do? language=en_US&cmd=displayKC
&externalId=1012033

QUESTION 5
An object has inherited permissions from two parent objects.
What is true about the permissions on the object?
A. The common permissions between the two are applied and the rest are discarded.
B. The permissions are combined from both parent objects.
C. No permissions are applied from the parent objects.
D. The permission is randomly selected from either of the two parent objects.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Most inventory objects inherit permissions from a single parent object in the hierarchy. For example, a
datastore inherits permissions from either its parent datastore folder or parent datacenter. Virtual machines
inherit permissions from both the parent virtual machine folder and the parent host, cluster, or resource
pool simultaneously. To restrict a user’s privileges on a virtual machine, you must set permissions on both
the parent folder and the parent host, cluster, or resource pool for that virtual machine.
Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-4-esx-vcenter/index.jsp?topic=/
com.vmware.vsphere.dcadmin.doc_41/vsp_dc_admin_guide/man
aging_users_groups_roles_and_permissions/c_hierarchical_inheritance_of_permissions.ht ml

QUESTION 6
Which three options are available for ESXi Certificate Replacement? (Choose three.)
A. VMware Certificate Authority mode
B. Custom Certificate Authority mode
C. Thumbprint modeD. Hybrid Deployment
E. VMware Certificate Endpoint Authority Mode
Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
You can perform different types of certificate replacement depending on company policy and requirements
for the system that you are configuring. You can perform each replacement with the vSphere Certificate
Manager utility or manually by using the CLIs included with your installation.
VMCA is included in each Platform Services Controller and in each embedded deployment. VMCA
provisions each node, each vCenter Server solution user, and each ESXi host with a certificate that is
signed by VMCA as the certificate authority. vCenter Server solution users are groups of vCenter Server
services. See vSphere Security for a list of solution users.
You can replace the default certificates. For vCenter Server components, you can use a set of command-
line tools included in your installation. You have several options.
Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-60/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.install.doc%
2FGUID-4469A6D3-048A-471C- 9CB4-518A15EA2AC0.html

QUESTION 7
An administrator is able to manage an ESXi 6.x host connected to vCenter Server using the vSphere Web
Client but is unable to connect to the host directly.
Which action should the administrator take to correct this behavior?
A. Restart management agents on the ESXi host.
B. Disable Lockdown Mode on the ESXi host through vCenter Server.
C. Disable the ESXi firewall with the command esxcli network firewall unload.
D. Reboot the ESXi host.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Disable lockdown mode through the DCUI and then enable it through the vCenter Server instead. The
vCenter Server does not keep track of lockdown mode state changes that initiated outside of the vCenter
Server itself.
Reference: http://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do? language=en_US&cmd=displayKC
&externalId=2040768

QUESTION 8
Which three connection types are supported between a remote site and vCloud Air? (Choose three.)
A. Secure Internet Connectivity
B. Private Connect
C. Direct Connect
D. Internet Connectivity
E. Secure VPN
Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The connection types supported between a remote site and vcloud Air is secure VPN, direct connect and
Secure Internet Connectivity.

QUESTION 9
An administrator wants to configure an ESXi 6.x host to use Active Directory (AD) to manage users and
groups. The AD domain group ESX Admins is planned for administrative access to the host.
Which two conditions should be considered when planning this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. If administrative access for ESX Admins is not required, this setting can be altered.
B. The users in ESX Admins are not restricted by Lockdown Mode.
C. An ESXi host provisioned with Auto Deploy cannot store AD credentials.
D. The users in ESX Admins are granted administrative privileges in vCenter Server.
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The setting can be altered if administrative access for ESX admins is not required. The second rule is that
the ESX admins users should not be restricted by Lockdown mode.

QUESTION 10
An administrator wishes to give a user the ability to manage snapshots for virtual machines.
Which privilege does the administrator need to assign to the user?
A. Datastore.Allocate Space
B. Virtual machine.Configuration.create snapshot
C. Virtual machine.Configuration.manage snapshot
D. Datastore.Browse Datastore
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Datastore.Allocate space allows allocating space on a datastore for a virtual machine, snapshot, clone, or
virtual disk.
Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-51/index.jsp?topic= %2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.security.doc
%2FGUID-B2426ACC-D73F-4732-8BBC- DE9B1B2263D9.html

QUESTION 11
An administrator has configured three vCenter Servers and vRealize Orchestrator within a Platform
Services Controller domain, and needs to grant a user privileges that span all environments.
Which statement best describes how the administrator would accomplish this?
A. Assign a Global Permission to the user.
B. Assign a vCenter Permission to the user.
C. Assign vsphere.local membership to the user.
D. Assign an ESXi Permission to the user.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Global permissions are applied to a global root object that spans solutions, for example, both vCenter
Server and vCenter Orchestrator. Use global permissions to give a user or group privileges for all objects
in all object hierarchies.
Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-60/index.jsp?topic= %2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.security.doc%
2FGUID-C7702E31-1623-4189-89CB- E1136AA27972.html

QUESTION 12
Which two statements are correct regarding vSphere certificates? (Choose two.)
A. ESXi host upgrades do not preserve the SSL certificate and reissue one from the VMware Certificate
Authority (VMCA).
B. ESXi host upgrades preserve the existing SSL certificate.
C. ESXi hosts have assigned SSL certificates from the VMware Certificate Authority (VMCA) during install.
D. ESXi hosts have self-signed SSL certificates by default.
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Of course, ESXi host upgrades preserve existing SSL certificate and it also have assigned SSL certificates
from VMCA during the installation process.

QUESTION 13
An administrator is configuring the clock tolerance for the Single Sign-On token configuration policy and
wants to define the time skew tolerance between a client and the domain controller clock.
Which time measurement is used for the value?
A. Milliseconds
B. Seconds
C. Minutes
D. Hours
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The time skew tolerance between a client and the domain controller clock is measured in milliseconds.

QUESTION 14
Which three Authorization types are valid in vSphere? (Choose three.)
A. Group Membership in vsphere.local
B. Global
C. Forest
D. vCenter Server
E. Group Membership in system-domain
Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Sphere 6.0 and later allows privileged users to give other users permissions to perform tasks in the
following ways. These approaches are, for the most part, mutually exclusive; however, you can assign use
global permissions to authorize certain users for all solution, and local vCenter Server permissions to
authorize other users for individual vCenter Server systems.
vCenter ServerPermissions
The permission model for vCenter Server systems relies on assigning permissions to objects in the object
hierarchy of thatvCenter Server. Each permission gives one user or group a set of privileges, that is, a role
for a selected object. For example, you can select an ESXi host and assign a role to a group of users to
give those users the corresponding privileges on that host.
Global Permissions
Global permissions are applied to a global root object that spans solutions. For example, if both vCenter
Server and vCenter Orchestrator are installed, you can give permissions to all objects in both object
hierarchies using global permissions. Global permissions are replicated across the vsphere.local domain.
Global permissions to not provide authorization for services managed through vsphere.local groups. See
Global Permissions.Group Membership in vsphere.local Groups
The user [email protected] can perform tasks that are associated with services included with
the Platform Services Controller. In addition, members of a vsphere.local group can perform the
corresponding task. For example, you can perform license management if you are a member of the
LicenseService.Administrators group. See Groups in the vsphere.local Domain.
Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-60/index.jsp?topic= %2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.security.doc%
2FGUID-74F53189-EF41-4AC1-A78E- D25621855800.html

QUESTION 15
Which two roles can be modified? (Choose two.)
A. Administrator
B. Network Administrator
C. Datastore Consumer
D. Read-Only
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
It is a common knowledge that you cannot modify Administrator role and grant whatever privileges you like.
Same is the case with read-only. This role is created solely for ready only purposes. So you are left with
two viable options ?Network administrator and Datastore consumer both of which can be modified to add
or delete privileges according to your specifications.

QUESTION 16
An administrator would like to use the VMware Certificate Authority (VMCA) as an Intermediate Certificate
Authority (CA). The first two steps performed are:
Replace the Root Certificate
Replace Machine Certificates (Intermediate CA)
Which two steps would need to be performed next? (Choose two.)
A. Replace Solution User Certificates (Intermediate CA)
B. Replace the VMware Directory Service Certificate (Intermediate CA)
C. Replace the VMware Directory Service Certificate
D. Replace Solution User Certificates
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
You can replace the VMCA root certificate with a third-party CA-signed certificate that includes VMCA in
the certificate chain. Going forward, all certificates that VMCA generates include the full chain. You can
replace existing certificates with newly generated certificates. This approach combines the security of third-
party CA-signed certificate with the convenience of automated certificate management.
Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-60/index.jsp?topic= %2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.security.doc%
2FGUID-5FE583A2-3737-4B62- A905-5BB38D479AE0.html

QUESTION 17
Strict Lockdown Mode has been enabled on an ESXi host.
Which action should an administrator perform to allow ESXi Shell or SSH access for users with
administrator privileges?
A. Grant the users the administrator role and enable the service.
B. Add the users to Exception Users and enable the service.
C. No action can be taken, Strict Lockdown Mode prevents direct access.D. Add the users to vsphere.local and enable the service.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-60/index.jsp?topic= %2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.security.doc
%2FGUID-F8F105F7-CF93-46DF-9319- F8991839D265.html

QUESTION 18
An administrator is creating a new Content Library. It will subscribe to another remote Content Library
without authentication enabled.
What information from the published library will they need in order to complete the subscription?
A. Subscription URL
B. A security password from the publishing Content Library
C. Publisher’s Items.json file
D. Username from the publishing Content Library
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Subscription URL from the published library is needed to complete the subscription.

QUESTION 19
An administrator with global administrator privileges creates a custom role but fails to assign any privileges
to it.
Which two privileges would the custom role have? (Choose two.)
A. System.View
B. System.Anonymous
C. System.User
D. System.ReadOnly
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
When you add a custom role and do not assign any privileges to it, the role is created as a Read Only role
with three system-defined privileges: System.Anonymous, System.View, and System.Read.
Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-51/index.jsp?topic= %2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.security.doc
%2FGUID-93B962A7-93FA-4E96-B68F- AE66D3D6C663.html

QUESTION 20
An administrator runs the command esxcli storage core device list and sees the following output:
mpx.vmhba1:C0:T0:L0 Display Name: RAID 5 (mpx.vmhba1:C0:T0:L0) Has Settable Display Name: false
SizE. 40960 Device Type: Direct-Access Multipath Plugin: NMP Devfs Path: /vmfs/devices/disks/
mpx.vmhba1:C0:T0:L0 Status: off Is Local: true
What can be determined by this output?
A. The device is a being used for vFlash Read Cache.
B. The device is in a Permanent Device Loss (PDL) state.
C. The device is a local Solid State Device (SSD).
D. The device is in an All Paths Down (APD) state.Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://vmwaremine.com/2014/07/07/manage-psa-claimrules-satp-rules- esxcli/
#sthash.i6Esax8x.dpbs

QUESTION 21
Which two advanced features should be disabled for virtual machines that are only hosted on a vSphere
system? (Choose two.)
A. isolation.tools.unity.push.update.disable
B. isolation.tools.ghi.launchmenu.change
C. isolation.tools.bbs.disable
D. isolation.tools.hgfsServerSet.enable
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Because VMware virtual machines run in many VMware products in addition to vSphere, some virtual
machine parameters do not apply in a vSphere environment. Although these features do not appear in
vSphere user interfaces, disabling them reduces the number of vectors through which a guest operating
system could access a host. Use the following .vmx setting to disable these features:
isolation.tools.unity.push.update.disable = “TRUE” isolation.tools.ghi.l”unch”enu.change = “TRUE”
isolation.tools.ghi.a”tolo”on.disable = “TRUE” isolation.tools.hgfsS”rver”et.disable = “TRUE”
isolation.tools.memSc”edFa”eSampleStats.disable = “TRUE” isolation.tools.getCr”ds.d”sable = “TRUE”
Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-51/index.jsp?topic= %2Fcom.vmware.vmtools.install.doc%
2FGUID-685722FA-9009-439C-9142-18A9E7C592EA.html

QUESTION 22
Which two features are deprecated in Network I/O Control 3 (NIOC3)? (Choose two.)
A. Class Of Service (COS) Tagging
B. Bandwidth Allocation
C. User-defined network resource pools
D. Admission control
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Class of Service tagging and user-defined resource pools are deprecated in NIOC3.

QUESTION 23
Which three statements are correct regarding Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCOE)? (Choose three.)
A. The network switch must have Priority-based Flow Control (PFC) set to AUTO.
B. The network switch must have Priority-based Flow Control (PFC) set to ON.
C. Each port on the FCoE card must reside on the same vSwitch.
D. Each port on the FCoE card must reside on a separate vSwitch.
E. The ESXi host will require a reboot after moving an FCoE card to a different vSwitch.
Correct Answer: ADE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-55/index.jsp?topic= %2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.storage.doc%
2FGUID-6B49866F-7005-4099-84AC-4FB2A1A91F64.html

QUESTION 24
Which three are requirements for configuring Storage I/O Control (SIOC)? (Choose three.)
A. The datastore must consist of only one extent.
B. The datastore is managed by a single vCenter Server.
C. Auto-tiered storage must be compatable with SIOC.
D. Auto-tiered storage must be SSD or SATA.
E. The datastore must be VMFS.
Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Storage I/O Control (SIOC) is used to control the I/O usage of a virtual machine and to gradually enforce
the predefined I/O share levels. SIOC is supported on Fibre Channel and iSCSI connected storage in ESX/
ESXi 4.1 and 5.0. With ESXi 5.0 support for NFS with SIOC was also added. Datastores with multiple
extents or Raw Device Mapping (RDM) are currently not supported.
Reference: http://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do? language=en_US&cmd=displayKC
&externalId=1022091

QUESTION 25
Refer to the Exhibit.
A Storage Policy for a Virtual SAN is set to the default policy, as shown in the Exhibit.
Which change would reduce the storage consumption by one third?
A. Number of failures to tolerate = 1
B. Number of disk stripes per object = 2
C. Number of failures to tolerate = 3
D. Number of disk stripes per object = 1Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Number of failures to tolerate defines the number of host, disk, or network failures a virtual machine object
can tolerate. For n failures tolerated, n+1 copies of the virtual machine object are created and 2n+1 hosts
with storage are required.
Default value is 1. Maximum value is 3.
Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-55/index.jsp?topic= %2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.storage.doc%
2FGUID-C8E919D0-9D80-4AE1-826B- D180632775F3.html

QUESTION 26
An administrator created a six node Virtual SAN cluster, created a fault domain, and moved three of the six
nodes into that domain.
A node that is a member of the fault domain fails.
What is the expected result?
A. The remaining two fault domain members are treated as failed.
B. The remaining two fault domain members stay protected by the domain.
C. One of the non-member nodes will be automatically added to the fault domain.
D. VMware High Availability will restart virtual machines on remaining nodes in the domain.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
When the member of the fault domain fails, the remaining two fault domain members are treated as failed
too.

QUESTION 27
A device’s vStorage API for Array Integration (VAAI) support status command line output shows:
naa.500253825002a865 VAAI Plugin Name: ATS Status: unsupported Clone Status:
unsupported Zero Status: supported Delete Status: unsupported
What is the corresponding VAAI support status in the vSphere Web Client?
A. Unknown
B. Supported
C. Not supported
D. Unsupported
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The VAAI support status will be unknown.
Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-55/index.jsp?topic= %2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.storage.doc%
2FGUID-0520FD37-D7AD-4FBA-9A2E- E5F8211FCBBB.html

QUESTION 28
Where is a Virtual SAN Fault Domain configured?
A. VMware Virtual SAN Cluster configuration
B. VMware High Availability Cluster configuration
C. Distributed Resource Scheduler configurationD. Datacenter Advanced Settings configuration
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
If your Virtual SAN cluster spans across multiple racks or blade server chassis in a data center and you
want to make sure that your hosts are protected against rack or chassis failure, you can create fault
domains and add one or more hosts to it.
A fault domain consists of one or more Virtual SAN hosts grouped together according to their physical
location in the data center. When configured, fault domains enable Virtual SAN to tolerate failures of entire
physical rack as well as failures of a single host, capacity device, network link or a network switch
dedicated to fault domains. Fault domains cannot be configured for stretched or metro clusters.
The number of failures your cluster can tolerate depends on the number of failures a virtual machine is
provisioned to tolerate. For example, when a virtual machine is configured with Number of failures to
tolerate=1 and using multiple fault domains, Virtual SAN can tolerate a single failure of any kind and of any
component in a fault domain, including the failure of an entire rack.
When you configure fault domains on a rack and provision a new virtual machine, Virtual SAN ensures that
protection objects, such as replicas and witnesses are placed on different fault domains. If, for example, a
virtual machine’s storage policy is Number of failures to tolerate=n, Virtual SAN requires a minimum of 2*n
+1 fault domains in the cluster. When virtual machines are provisioned in a cluster with fault domains using
this policy, the copies of the associated virtual machine objects are stored across separate racks.
Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-60/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.virtualsan.doc
%2FGUID-8491C4B0-6F94- 4023-8C7A-FD7B40D0368D.html

QUESTION 29
What are two use cases for Fibre Channel Zoning in a vSphere environment? (Choose two.)
A. Increases the number of targets presented to an ESXi host.
B. Controls and isolates paths in a fabric.
C. Controls and isolates paths to an NFS share.
D. Can be used to separate different environments.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Zoning provides access control in the SAN topology. Zoning defines which HBAs can connect to which
targets. When you configure a SAN by using zoning, the devices outside a zone are not visible to the
devices inside the zone.
Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-55/index.jsp?topic= %2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.storage.doc%
2FGUID-E7818A5D-6BD7-4F51-B4BA- EFBF2D3A8357.html

QUESTION 30
Which two statements are true regarding VMFS3 volumes in ESXi 6.x? (Choose two.)
A. Creation of VMFS3 volumes is unsupported.
B. Upgrading VMFS3 volumes to VMFS5 is supported.
C. Existing VMFS3 volumes are unsupported.
D. Upgrading VMFS3 volumes to VMFS5 is unsupported.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
While a VMFS-3, which is upgraded to VMFS-5, provides you with most of the capabilities as a newly
created VMFS-5, there are some differences. Both upgraded and newly created VMFS-5 support single-extent volumes up to 64TB and both support VMDK sizes of ~2TB, no matter what the VMFS file-block
size is. However additional differences, although minor, should be considered when making a decision
whether to upgrade to VMFS-5 or create new VMFS-5 volumes.
Reference: http://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/techpaper/ VMFS-5_Upgrade_Considerations.pdf

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QUESTION 1
Which network device creates and sends the initial packet of a session?
A. source
B. origination
C. destination
D. network
210-255 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
In the context of incident handling phases, which two activities fall under scoping? (Choose two.)
A. determining the number of attackers that are associated with a security incident
B. ascertaining the number and types of vulnerabilities on your network
C. identifying the extent that a security incident is impacting protected resources on the network
D. determining what and how much data may have been affected
E. identifying the attackers that are associated with a security incident
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 3
Which string matches the regular expression r(ege)+x?
A. rx
B. regeegex
C. r(ege)x
D. rege+x
210-255 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which source provides reports of vulnerabilities in software and hardware to a Security Operations Center?
A. Analysis Center
B. National CSIRT
C. Internal CSIRT
D. Physical Security
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
From a security perspective, why is it important to employ a clock synchronization protocol on a network?
A. so that everyone knows the local time
B. to ensure employees adhere to work schedule
C. to construct an accurate timeline of events when responding to an incident
D. to guarantee that updates are pushed out according to schedule
210-255 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which element is part of an incident response plan?
A. organizational approach to incident response
B. organizational approach to security
C. disaster recovery
D. backups
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What mechanism does the Linux operating system provide to control access to files?
A. privileges required
B. user interaction
C. file permissions
D. access complexity
210-255 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
210-255
You notice that the email volume history has been abnormally high.
Which potential result is true?
A. Email sent from your domain might be filtered by the recipient.
B. Messages sent to your domain may be queued up until traffic dies down.
C. Several hosts in your network may be compromised.
D. Packets may be dropped due to network congestion.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
210-255 dumps
Which type of log is this an example of?
A. IDS log
B. proxy log
C. NetFlow log
D. syslog
210-255 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
210-255 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from this ping result?
A. The public IP address of cisco.com is 2001:420:1101:1::a.
B. The Cisco.com website is down.
C. The Cisco.com website is responding with an internal IP.
D. The public IP address of cisco.com is an IPv4 address.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which option has a drastic impact on network traffic because it can cause legitimate traffic to be blocked?
A. true positive
B. true negative
C. false positive
D. false negative
210-255 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You have run a suspicious file in a sandbox analysis tool to see what the file does. The analysis report shows that outbound callouts were made post infection. Which two pieces of information from the analysis report are needed or required to investigate the callouts? (Choose two.)
A. file size
B. domain names
C. dropped files
D. signatures
E. host IP addresses
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 13
Which goal of data normalization is true?
A. Reduce data redundancy.
B. Increase data redundancy.
C. Reduce data availability.
D. Increase data availability
210-255 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which CVSSv3 metric value increases when the attacker is able to modify all files protected by the vulnerable component?
A. confidentiality
B. integrity
C. availability
D. complexity
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
210-255 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of log is this an example of?
A. syslog
B. NetFlow log
C. proxy log
D. IDS log
210-255 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which type of analysis allows you to see how likely an exploit could affect your network?
A. descriptive
B. casual
C. probabilistic
D. inferential
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which type of analysis assigns values to scenarios to see what the outcome might be in each scenario?
A. deterministic
B. exploratory
C. probabilistic
D. descriptive
210-255 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which description of a retrospective maKvare detection is true?
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B. You use historical information from one or more sources to identify the affected host or file.
C. You use information from a network analyzer to identify the malware source.
D. You use Wireshark to identify the affected host or file.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which two components are included in a 5-tuple? (Choose two.)
A. port number
B. destination IP address
C. data packet
D. user name
E. host logs
210-255 dumps Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 20
Which CVSSv3 metric value increases when attacks consume network bandwidth, processor cycles, or disk space?
A. confidentiality
B. integrity
C. availability
D. complexity
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
You see confidential data being exfiltrated to an IP address that is attributed to a known Advanced Persistent Threat group. Assume that this is part of a real attach and not a network misconfiguration. Which category does this event fall under as defined in the Diamond Model of Intrusion?
A. reconnaissance
B. weaponization
C. delivery
D. action on objectives
210-255 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which regular expression matches “color” and “colour”?
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B. colo?ur
C. colou?r
D. ]a-z]{7}
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
Which feature is used to find possible vulnerable services running on a server?
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B. security policy
C. temporary internet files
D. listening ports
210-255 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Which element is included in an incident response plan?
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B. junior analyst approval
C. day-to-day firefighting
D. siloed approach to communications
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Drag and drop the type of evidence from the left onto the correct descnption(s) of that evidence on the right.
Select and Place:
210-255 dumps
210-255 exam Correct Answer:

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the element name from the left onto the correct piece of the NetFlow v5 record from a security event on the right.

Select and Place:

210-255 dumps Correct Answer:

QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the element name from the left onto the correct piece of the PCAP file on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 28
Drag and drop the elements of incident handling from the left into the correct order on the right.
Select and Place:
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210-255 pdf Correct Answer:
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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-494 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-15)

QUESTION 1
You are developing a WCF service. A new service instance must be created for each client request. You need to choose an instancing mode.
Which instancing mode should you use?
A. Single
B. PerRequest
C. PerCall
D. Multiple
E. PerSession
70-494 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 2
You are developing a WCF service that compares several data sources. The service takes a long time to complete. The service must meet the following requirements: The client must be able to continue processing while the service is running. The service must initiate communication with the client application when processing is complete. You need to choose a message pattern to meet the requirements. Which message pattern should you choose?
A. One Way
B. Streaming
C. Duplex
D. Request/Reply
70-494 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 3
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application that reads and writes data from a SQL Server database. You need to maintain data integrity including retrieving identical sets across reads in all situations that use transactions. Which isolation level should you use?
A. Repeatable
B. Serializable
C. ReadUncommitted
D. ReadCommitted
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: REPEATABLE READ
Specifies that statements cannot read data that has been modified but not yet committed by other transactions and that no other transactions can modify data that has been read by the current transaction until the current transaction completes.

QUESTION 4
You develop an ASP.NET MVC application that is secured by using SSL. You are ready to deploy the application to production. The deployment package must include the installation of the SSL certificate. You need to configure the deployment package to meet the requirement. What should you do?
A. Create a web publish pipeline target file with a custom web deploy target.
B. In the Package/Publish settings of the project, select the All Files in this project option.
C. Extend the CopyAllFilesToSingleFolder target in the project file.
D. In the Build Events settings of the project, configure a pre-build event to include the SSL certificate.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 5
You are developing a .NET application that uses the HttpClient type to call an ASP.NET Web API application. The API call returns a list of customers in JSON format and logs the results. The URI for the API call is in a variable named address. You need to make the API call without blocking. Which code segment should you use?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
70-494 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Example:
// Create an HttpClient instance
11: HttpClient client = new HttpClient();
12:
13: // Send a request asynchronously continue when complete
14: client.GetAsync(_address).ContinueWith(
15: (requestTask) =>
16: {
17: // Get HTTP response from completed task.
18: HttpResponseMessage response = requestTask.Result;
19:
20: // Check that response was successful or throw exception
21: response.EnsureSuccessStatusCode();
22:
23: // Read response asynchronously as JsonValue and write out top facts for each country
24: response.Content.ReadAsAsync().ContinueWith(
25: (readTask) =>

QUESTION 6
You are preparing to develop a set of libraries for a company. The libraries must be shared across the company. You need to create a remote NuGet feed that exposes the libraries.What should you do? (Each answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Install the NuGet.Feed Package.
B. Install the NuGet.Server Package.
C. Configure the Packages folder located in the system.webserver section of the web application’s Web.config.
D. Create a new Empty Web Site in Visual Studio 2012.
E. Configure the Packages folder located in the appSettings section of the web application’s Web.config.
F. Add packages to the Packages folder.
G. Create a new Empty Web Application in Visual Studio 2012.
70-494 pdf Correct Answer: BEFG
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Explanation/Reference:
70-494 dumps

QUESTION 7
You are designing an ASP.NET Web API application. You need to select an HTTP verb to allow blog administrators to moderate a comment.
Which HTTP verb should you use?
A. GET
B. POST
C. DELETE
D. PUT
70-494 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 8
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application that reads and writes data from a SQL Server database. You need to prevent the application from reading data that is locked by other transactions. You also need to prevent exclusive range locks. Which isolation level should you use?
A. ReadCommitted
B. Serializable
C. Repeatable
D. ReadUncommitted
70-494 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 9
You are developing an application in Visual Studio 2012 to display student information. The application contains the following Entity Framework model.
70-494 dumps
The application contains a WCF data service named DirectoryService.svc. You need to create a query expression to display all of the grades for students whose first name is “John” How should you build the expression?
A. http://localhost:54946/DirectoryService.svc/Students?$filter=FirstName eq ‘John’ &$expand=Grades
B. http://localhost:54946/DirectoryService.svc/Students?$filter=FirstName eq ‘John’/Grades
C. http://localhost:54946/DirectoryService.svc/Students?$filter=FirstName = ‘John’ &$expand=Grades
D. http://localhost:54946/DirectoryService.svc/Grades/Students?$filter=FirstName eq ‘John’
70-494 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 10
You are preparing to develop a set of libraries that uses large data sets. The libraries must be shared across an organization and distributed to several servers. You need to create a remote NuGet feed that exposes the libraries for developer use. What should you do? (Each answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Add packages to the Packages folder.
B. Create a new Empty Web Application in Visual Studio.
C. Configure the Packages folder located in the appSettings section of the web application’s Web.config.
D. Install the NuGet.DataFeed Package.
E. Install the NuGet.Server Package.
F. Create a new Empty Web Site in Visual Studio.
Correct Answer: ABCE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Creating Remote Feeds
You can host a remote (or internal) feed on a server that runs IIS. Step 1 (B): Create a new Empty Web Application in Visual Studio Step 2 (E): Install the NuGet.Server Package
Step 3 (C): Configure the Packages folder
Step 4 (A): Add Packages to the Packages folder
Step 5: Deploy and run your brand new Package Feed!
Reference: Hosting Your Own NuGet Feeds

QUESTION 11
You are developing a WCF service. A new service instance must be created for each client session. You need to choose an instancing mode.
Which instance mode should you use?
A. PerCall
B. Single
C. Multiple
D. PerSession
E. PerRequest
70-494 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 12
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application. Deployment administrators do not have access to Visual Studio 2102, but will have the elevated permissions required to deploy the application to the servers. You need to select a deployment tool for use by the deployment administrators.
Which tool should you use?
A. Publish Web Site Tool
B. Web Deployment Package
C. One-Click Publish
D. Deployment Package Editor
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 13
You are planning to migrate websites from IIS 6 to IIS 7.5. You do not have access to SSH or a VPN. You need to select a deployment tool to securely migrate the websites. Which tool should you use?
A. RoboCopy
B. Web Deploy
C. Microsoft command-line FTP
D. xCopy
70-494 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 14
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC web application that contains the following HTML. You also have an ASP.NET Web API application that contains a call for retrieving customers. You must send and retrieve the data in the most compact format possible. You need to update the HTML for the customers table to contain data from the Web API application. Which script segment should you use?
70-494 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 15
DRAG DROP
You are developing an ASP.NET Web API for a home inventory management system. You need to limit access to users with IP addresses based only in the United States. You have the following code:
70-494 dumps
Which code segments should you include in Target 1 and Target 2 to complete the code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct targets in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
70-494 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-494 dumps

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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70-494 dumps
70-494 dumps
70-494 dumps
Visual Studio and .NET

  • 70-490: Recertification for MCSD: Windows Store Apps Using HTML5
  • 70-491: Recertification for MCSD: Windows Store Apps Using C#
  • 70-494: Recertification for MCSD: Web Applications
  • 70-499: Recertification for MCSD: Application Lifecycle Management

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CCNP Routing and Switching

[UPDATE February-9] Best Quality Cisco 300-135 Dumps PDF CCNP Routing and Switching Certification Is Omnipresent In Today’s World 160Q Free Share (46-51)

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-135 Dumps Exam Q&As(46-51)

QUESTION 46
A construction company is about to start a new project. It requires hiring a project manager for this project. Which of the following are the most important skills that a person must have to be selected as a project manager?
A. Problem solving
B. Team building and human resources
C. Leading
D. Communication
E. Negotiation and influential
300-135 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A good project manager must have all of the above mentioned skills. Out of these, the communication skills are the most important skills for a project manager. Communications skills are part of general management skills and are used to exchange information. Communication has many dimensions: Written and oral, listening, and speaking Internal (within the project) and external (customer, the media, the public) Formal (reports, briefings) and informal (memos, ad hoc conversations) Vertical (up and down the organization) and horizontal (with peers) Communication is the most important skill that a project manager must posses. It is the single most important characteristics of a top-class project manager. Project managers must communicate well in order to integrate and maximize the performance of team members. Oral and written communications are the backbone of every successful project. During different phases of a project, a project manager requires to communicate through different manners (for example, documentation, meeting updates, etc.) and he must ensure that the information communicated is explicit, clear, and complete. Answer options E, C, A, and B are incorrect. All these mentioned skills make a person a good project manager. Communication skills top the list. What are organizational skills? Organizational skills are part of management skills to organize various aspects of a project in order to complete it successfully. A good project manager uses these skills to successfully organize his meetings, as well as to keep documentations, quotes, contracts, etc., which can be fetched at any given moment. Organizational skills also include planning and time management skills. What are budgeting skills? Budgeting skills include the knowledge of finance and accounting principles. A project manager must possess these skills in order to perform cost estimates for project budgeting. Reading and understanding quotes, preparing purchase orders, and reconciling purchase invoices are all part of budgeting skills. In order to make the budget of a project, the project manager must have excellent budgeting skills. What are problem solving skills? Problem solving skills include the ability to define and analyze problems, and to take decisions in order to solve the problems by implementing those decisions. Every project manager must possess strong problem solving skills. Problem solving is a two-fold process: Defining the problem Taking a decision and then
implementing it A project manager is responsible for determining the best course of action to take in order to resolve the problem. What are negotiating and influencing skills? Negotiating skills includes demanding and convincing others for the rightful thing or act. A project manager needs this skill to negotiate on projects in almost every area such as scope definitions, budgets, contracts, resource assignments, schedules, etc. Influencing skills include the convincing power of a person. It is an ability to change minds and the course of events. A good project manager requires these skills to utilize them in all areas of project management.

QUESTION 47
Which of the following individuals has a management role in a core business area, such as research and development, design, manufacturing, provisioning, testing, or maintenance?
A. Functional manager
B. Operations manager
C. Project manager
D. Seller
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The role of operations manager is to perform various management roles in a core business area, such as research and development, design, manufacturing, provisioning, testing, or maintenance. The operations manager directly deals with constructing and maintaining the saleable products or services of the enterprise. Answer option C is incorrect. A project manager is an expert in the field of project management. He is responsible for the entire project from inception to completion. The project manager leads the team and helps negotiate the multiple relationships within any project whether with clients, team members, firm principals or any variety of partners and functions as the hub of a project. Answer option A is incorrect. The
role of a functional manager is to perform various management roles within an administrative or functional area of the business, such as human resources, finance, accounting, or procurement. He is assigned his own permanent staff to carry out the ongoing work. He should have a clear directive to manage all tasks within his functional area of responsibility. Answer option D is incorrect. Seller is also known as a vendor, supplier or contractor. They are external company’s elements that enter into a contractual agreement to provide components or services necessary for the project.

QUESTION 48
John is the project manager for his organization. He has created a status dashboard for his stakeholders. What is a status dashboard?
A. It is a report that details the current status of risks and issues.
B. It is a software application that allows stakeholders to view the project manager’s performance.
C. It is a web-based tool to inspect the project deliverables for performance.
D. It is a report that reflects the overall performance of scope, schedule, quality, cost, or other project performance metrics.
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Of all the choices, the best explanation is that a dashboard is a report for quick review of the project’s performance metrics. While there are some software solutions, they still focus on the key performance criteria of the project. Answer option C is incorrect. This answer defines the definition of quality control, not the dashboard’s review of project performance. Answer option B is incorrect. Dashboards focus on the performance of the project’s key performance factors, not the project manager. Answer option A is incorrect. A status report could include the details of the project’s risks and issues, but usually not the dashboard.

QUESTION 49
You have been hired as a project manager for Tech Perfect Inc. You are studying the documentation of planning of a project. The documentation states that there are twenty-five stakeholders with the project. What will be the number of communication channels for the project?
A. 300
B. 50
C. 600
D. 25
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
According to the question, the project has twenty-five stakeholders. Communication channels are paths of communication with stakeholders in a project. The number of communication channels shows the complexity of a project’s communication and can be derived through the formula shown below: Total Number of Communication Channels = n (n-1)/2 where, n is the number of stakeholders. Hence, a project  having five stakeholders will have ten communication channels. Putting the value of the number of stake holder in the formula will provide the number of communication channels: Number of communication channel = (n (n-1)) / 2 = (25 (25-1)) / 2 = (25 x 24) / 2 = 600 / 2 = 300 Who are project stakeholders?
Project stakeholders are those entities within or without an organization, which: Sponsor a project or, Have an interest or a gain upon a successful completion of a project. Examples of project stakeholders include the customer, the user group, the project manager, the development team, the testers, etc. Stakeholders are anyone who has an interest in the project. Project stakeholders are individuals and organizations that are actively involved in the project, or whose interests may be affected as a result of project execution or project completion. They may also exert influence over the project’s objectives and outcomes. The project management team must identify the stakeholders, determine their requirements and expectations, and, to the extent possible, manage their influence in relation to the requirements to ensure a successful project.

QUESTION 50
You are the project manager of the GHY Project. This project is scheduled to last for one year and has a BAC of $4,500,000. You are currently 45 percent complete with this project, though you are supposed to be at your second milestone which accounts for half of the project completion. There have been some errors in the project, which has caused you to spend $2,073,654. What is this project’s schedule variance?
A. -$48,654
B. 13 percent
C. -$225,000
D. 0.98
300-135 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
he schedule variance can be found by subtracting the planned value form the earned value. In this instance, it is $2,025,000 minus $2,250,000. SV = 2,025,000 – 2,250,000 = -225,000 Schedule variance (SV) is a measure of schedule performance on a project. The variance notifies that the schedule is ahead or behind what was planned for this period in time. The schedule variance is calculated based on the following formula: SV = Earned Value (EV) – Planned Value (PV) If the resulting schedule is negative, it indicates that the project is behind schedule. A value greater than 0 shows that the project is ahead of the planned schedule. A value of 0 indicates that the project is right on target. Answer option A is incorrect.
This is the cost variance for the project. Answer option B is incorrect. 13 percent is not a valid answer. Answer option D is incorrect. This is not a valid variance for this question; variances are typically negative numbers.

QUESTION 51
The figure given below demonstrates the communication model for a project. What role does the component E play in the communications model?
A. Static
B. Deterrent
C. Noise
D. Barrier
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Noise is anything that disrupts the communication method such as static on the telephone line, distracting conversations, or misunderstandings.
Answer option A is incorrect. Static is an example of noise, but it is not part of the communication model.
Answer option D is incorrect. A barrier to communication is when communication cannot happen under the present conditions.
Answer option B is incorrect. A deterrent is not a valid part of the communication model.

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 210-451 Dumps Exam Q&As(6-46)

QUESTION 6
The Cisco InterCloud Fabric Director provides what functionality?
A. It is the single point of management and consumption for hybrid Cloud solutions.
B. It is the single point of management and consumption for public Cloud solutions.
C. It is the single point of management and consumption for private Cloud solutions.
D. It is a plugin of a Virtual Machine Manager to provide management and configuration for hybrid Cloud solutions.
210-451 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which two options are benefits of the Cisco InterCloud Solution? (Choose two.)
A. enforces standardization on a single hypervisor product
B. provides self service for hybrid resources
C. management of heterogeneous SAN solutions
D. secure connectivity between public and private Clouds
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
Which two options are characteristics of NAS? (Choose two.)
A. NAS provides block-based storage only.
B. NAS provides storage and filesystems.
C. NAS requires no authentication.
D. SMB is a protocol that can be used for NAS.
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
Which option is one essential characteristic of Cloud computing?
A. It must use virtualization.
B. It must provide load balancing services.
C. It must provide on-demand self service.
D. It must run on open source software.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which description of RAID6 is true?
A. block-level striping of data with double distributed parity
B. drive-level striping of data with double distributed parity
C. block-level striping of data with single distributed parity
D. block-level mirroring of data with double distributed parity
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Where is the Hypervisor installed?
A. Host operating system
B. Guest operating system
C. Control node
D. Computer node
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which API structure does Cisco UCS Manager support?
A. JSON
B. XML
C. RUBY
D. PERL
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which of the following situation would not impair audit objectivity?
A. An auditor is assigned to audit a business function that the auditor was responsible for nine months ago
B. An individual temporarily assigned to the internal audit activity because of the individual’sexpert knowledge in a particular business function assigned to audit an activity that theindividual was responsible for just prior to transferring to the internal audit activity
C. An auditor is assigned to perform a post-implementation review on a system for which the auditor participated in the design process
D. An auditor is assigned to perform a post-implementation review on a system for which the auditor performed a procedure review and made control recommendations prior to the system’s implementation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Internal auditing:
A. Is an independent, objective assurance and consulting activity designed to add value and improve anorganization’s operations
B. Is an independent, performance measurement and consulting activity designed to addValue and improve an organization’s operations
C. Helps an organization accomplish objectives by bringing a systematic, disciplinedApproach to evaluate but rarely improve the effectiveness of risk management, control and governance
D. Helps an organization accomplish objectives by bringing a targeted, disciplined approach to evaluate but rarely improve the effectiveness of risk management, control and governance
210-451 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
IIA’s code of ethics applies to __________ that provide internal auditing services:
A. Individuals
B. Entities
C. Individuals and entities
D. Individuals, entities and indirect authorities
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Internal auditors are expected to uphold the following principles:
A. Integrity, objectivity, competency
B. Integrity, objectivity, confidentiality, and competency
C. Integrity, objectivity, awareness and competency
D. Integrity, objectivity, entirety
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
“Internal auditors make a balanced assessment of all the relevant circumstances and are not unduly influenced by their own interests or by others in forming judgments.” This statement best explains one of the following principles:
A. Competency
B. Confidentiality
C. Objectivity
D. Integrity
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Internal auditors, engaging in activities that are illegal and discreditable to the profession of internal auditing or the organization, violate which of the following principles:
A. Objectivity
B. Awareness
C. Integrity
D. Competence
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which of the following statements is NOT related to competency principle of internal auditing? Internal auditors:
A. Shall continually improve their proficiency and effectiveness and quality of their services
B. Shall perform internal auditing services in accordance with the standards for the professional practice of internal auditing
C. Shall engage only in those services for which they have the necessary knowledge, skills and experience
D. Shall disclose all material facts known to them that, if not disclosed, may distort the reporting of activities under review
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
While performing consulting services internal auditors should specifically maintain:
A. Proficiency level
B. Objectivity
C. Competence
D. Confidentiality
210-451 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
All these statements elaborate purpose of standards EXCEPT:
A. Foster improved organizational processes and operations
B. Establish the basis for the evaluation of internal audit performance
C. Subvert the framework for performing and promoting broad range of value-added internal audit activities.
D. Delineate basic principles that represent the practice of internal auditing as it should be
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Nature of internal audit activities and quality criteria against which the performance of these services can be evaluated is best portrayed by:
A. Performance Standards
B. Attribute Standards
C. Implementation Standards
D. Evaluation Standards
210-451 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
There are multiple sets of attribute and performance standards:
A. False
B. True
C. True- In specific conditions
D. False- In specific conditions
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
All of the following phrases are used to express the auditor’s opinion EXCEPT:
A. Give a true and fair view
B. Present fairly, in all material respects
C. Timely and consistent opinion
D. Comprehensible and realistic view
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
The auditor should plan an audit with an attitude of:
A. Professional competence
B. Professional skepticism
C. Subject awareness
D. Opinion sharing
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
Which of the following is a limitation in an audit that affects auditors’ ability to detect material misstatements?
A. Scope of an audit
B. The use of testing
C. Over- generalization
D. Unidentifiable risks
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Reasonable assurance relates to the:
A. Audit planning process
B. Scope of the internal audit
C. End of the audit process
D. Whole audit process
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
The responsibility for preparing and presenting the audited financial statements is that of:
A. Internal auditor
B. Engagement client/ Management of the entity
C. Process owner
D. Auditing Agency
210-451 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
All these are disparities in public and private sector audits EXCEPT:
A. Objective and scope
B. Specific requirements of relevant regulation, ordinances or ministerial directives
C. Specific and broad range mandate in public sector
D. Reasonable assurance
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
Which one of the following is an internal control component?
A. Compliance control
B. Control activities
C. Financial Reporting Controls
D. Communication channels and network
210-451 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
Management must ___________ assess business risk and develop clearly defined control objectives:
A. Continually
B. Annually
C. Periodically
D. Weekly
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
Internal audit routinely reviews compliance risk and also should be reviewing business risk. The efforts to control both risk types will purely enhance:
A. The short-term profitability and viability of an organization
B. The long-term profitability and viability of an organization
C. Both short-term and long-term profitability and viability of an organization
D. None of these
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
Following statements define risk EXCEPT:
A. Organization has knowledge of facts constituting a dangerous condition
B. Organization voluntarily exposes itself to the danger
C. The element of assurance in an undertaking
D. Measured in terms of impact and likelihood
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 34
Strategic planning is the process of taking a long-term view of the organization, the longer the view, the greater the uncertainty of risks and opportunities. Such reservations can better be handled by:
A. Timely decisions
B. Flexible/ Adaptive plans and processes
C. Periodic risk assessments
D. Focusing on current period organizational activity
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
High-risk scores are those with an average of scores:
A. 3.75 or more
B. 3.25 or more
C. 4.25 or more
D. 4.00 or more
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
Low-risk scores are those with an average of scores:
A. 2.25 or less
B. 2.75 or less
C. 2.00 or less
D. 3.25 or less
210-451 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
Risks inherent in the management process are known as:
A. Residual risks
B. Long-term risks
C. Control risks
D. Strategic risks
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 38
Both residual and control risk need to be_______________ dealt with in project management.
A. Timely
B. Implicitly
C. Professionally
D. Explicitly
210-451 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 39
“Ongoing monitoring activities are conducted to periodically reassess risk and the effectiveness of control
risk,” is an objective of:
A. Risk Identification
B. Risk Measurement
C. Risk Management Process
D. Risk Prioritization
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 40
Faulty human judgments, misunderstanding of instructions, errors, management override, and collusion
and cost/benefit considerations are the limitations of:
A. Reasonable Assurance
B. Internal Control System
C. Risk Management
D. Compliance Control
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 41
Five internal control components are:
A. Control environment, Risk assessment, Control activities, Information and communication & Monitoring
B. Control environment, Risk assessment, and Operational control, Information and communication & Monitoring
C. Control environment, Risk Prioritization, Control activities, Information and communication & Monitoring
D. Control environment, Risk Prioritization, Control activities, Information and communication & Monitoring
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 42
Enterprise risk management encompasses all EXCEPT:
A. Aligning risk appetite and strategy
B. Enhancing risk responsibilities and decisions
C. Increasing Operational Surprises
D. Seizing Opportunities
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 43
Organization’s Objectives are described in three general categories:
A. Effectiveness of operations, Efficiency of strategic plans, Reliability of internal and external reporting
B. Effectiveness of operations, Efficiency of strategic plans, Reliability of internal and external reporting, compliance with applicable laws and regulations
C. Effectiveness and Efficiency of operations, Compliance with applicable laws and regulations, Monitoring and management control system
D. Effectiveness and Efficiency of operations, Reliability of internal and external reporting, Compliance
with applicable laws and regulations
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 44
The plans developed for the audit functions should be updated as circumstances dictate. Such specific types of plans include all EXCEPT:
A. Activity Reports
B. Target dates
C. Opportunities and threats
D. Staffing plans and financial budgets
210-451 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 45
Which one of the following statements is NOT the part of audit work schedule?
A. The extent and type of findings in the last audit
B. Loss of assets, errors and fraud
C. The availability of audit staff resources
D. Opportunities to achieve operations benefits
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 46
Risk is the probability that an event or action may adversely affect the organization or activity under review. In other words, risk is anything that can prevent an organization from achieving an objective. Major components of risk are as follows EXCEPT:
A. Non- Compliance with the laws, rules and regulations
B. An event or cause that can interfere with achieving the objective (e.g. What can go wrong?)
C. A probability or likelihood of occurrence
D. The negative consequences of not achieving the objective
210-451 exam Correct Answer: A

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[Update December-25] New Release Cisco 100-105 Dumps ICND1 v3.0 Exam Video Questions And Answers With Accurate Answers

Why should someone do Cisco 100-105 dumps? The Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0) (100-105 ICND1) exam is a 90 Minutes (45-55 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCENT, CCNA Routing & Switching, CCDA, CCNA Security, CCNA Wireless certification. New release Cisco 100-105 dumps ICND1 v3.0 exam video questions and answers with accurate answers. “Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 100-105 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 100-105 exam.

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100-105 dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 100-105 Dumps Exam Q&As:

Question No : 5 – (Topic 1)  Refer to the exhibit
100-105 dumps

Host A is sending a packet to Host B for the first time. What destination MAC address will Host A use in the ARP request?
A. 192.168.0.1
B. 172.16.0.50
C. 00-17-94-61-18-b0
D. 00-19-d3-2d-c3-b2
E. ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff
F. 255.255.255.255
100-105 exam Answer: E
Explanation:
For the initial communication, Host A will send a broadcast ARP (all F’s) to determine the correct address to use to reach the destination. ARP sends an Ethernet frame called an ARP request to every host on the shared link-layer legmen. The Ethernet header includes the source host MAC address and a destination address of all Fs representing a broadcast frame. The ARP request contains the sender’s MAC and IP address and the target (destination) IP address. 
Question No : 6 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit
100-105 dumps

What kind of cable should be used to make each connection that is identified by the numbers shown?
A.
1 – Ethernet Crossover cable
2 – Ethernet straight-through cable
3 – Fiber Optic cable
4 – Rollover cable
B.
1 – Ethernet straight-through cable
2 – Ethernet straight-through cable
3 – Serial cable
4 – Rollover cable
C.
1 – Ethernet rollover cable
2 – Ethernet crossover cable
3 – Serial cable
4 – Null-modem cable
D.
1 – Ethernet straight-through cable
2 – Ethernet Crossover cable
3 – Serial cable
4 – Rollover cable
E.
1 – Ethernet straight-through cable
2 – Ethernet Crossover cable
3 – Serial cable
4 – Ethernet Straight-through cable
Answer: B
Explanation:
When connecting a PC to a switch, a standard Ethernet straight through cable should be used. This same cable should also be used for switch to router connections. Generally speaking, crossover cables are only needed when connecting two like devices (PC-PC, switch-switch, router-router, etc). Routers connect to frame relay and other WAN networks using serial cables. Rollover cables are special cables used for connecting to the console ports of Cisco devices.
Question No : 7 – (Topic 1)  Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

SwitchA receives the frame with the addressing shown. According to the command output also shown in the exhibit, how will SwitchA handle this frame?
A. It will drop the frame.
B. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/6 only.
C. It will flood the frame out all ports.
D. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.
100-105 dumps Answer: B
Explanation:
Switches keep the learned MAC addresses in a table, so that when a frame comes in with a destination MAC address that the switch has already learned, it will forward it to that port only. If a frame comes in with a destination MAC that is not already in the MAC address table, then the frame will be flooded to all ports except for the one that it came in on. In this case, Switch A already knows that 00b0.d0da.cb56 resides on port fa0/6, so it will forward the from out that port.
Question No : 8 – (Topic 1) Which statements accurately describe CDP? (Choose three.)
A. CDP is an IEEE standard protocol.
B. CDP is a Cisco proprietary protocol.
C. CDP is a datalink layer protocol.
D. CDP is a network layer protocol.
E. CDP can discover directly connected neighboring Cisco devices.
F. CDP can discover Cisco devices that are not directly connected.
Answer: B,C,E
Explanation:
CDP (Cisco Discovery Protocol) is a proprietary protocol designed by Cisco to help administrators collect information about both locally attached and remote devices. By using CDP, you can gather hardware and protocol information about neighbor devices containing useful info for troubleshooting and documenting the network.
 Question No : 9 – (Topic 1)  Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A network device needs to be installed in the place of the icon labeled Network Device to accommodate a leased line attachment to the Internet. Which network device and interface configuration meets the minimum requirements for this installation?
A. a router with two Ethernet interfaces
B. a switch with two Ethernet interfaces
C. a router with one Ethernet and one serial interface
D. a switch with one Ethernet and one serial interface
E. a router with one Ethernet and one modem interface
100-105 pdf Answer: C
Explanation:
Only a router can terminate a leased line attachment access circuit, and only a router can connect two different IP networks. Here, we will need a router with two interfaces, one serial connection for the line attachment and one Ethernet interface to connect to the switch on the LAN
Question No : 10 – (Topic 1)  What must occur before a workstation can exchange HTTP packets with a web server?
A. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
B. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
C. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
 D. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
E. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
F. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
Answer: D
Explanation:
HTTP uses TCP port 80, and a TCP port 80 connection must be established for HTTP communication to occur.
Question No : 11 Make Successfully Resolve to server1.example.com where DNS Server is 192.168.0.254.
Answer: 1. vi /etc/resolv.conf
Question No : 12. Quota is implemented on /data but not working properly. Find out the Problem and implement the quota to user1 to have a soft limit 60 inodes (files) and hard limit of 70 inodes (files).
Answer and Explanation:
Quotas are used to limit a user’s or a group of users’ ability to consume disk space. This prevents a small group of users from monopolizing disk capacity and potentially interfering with other users or the entire system. Disk quotas are commonly used by ISPs, by Web hosting companies, on FTP sites, and on corporate file servers to ensure continued availability of their systems. Without quotas, one or more users can upload files on an FTP server to the point of filling a filesystem. Once the affected partition is full, other users are effectively denied upload access to the disk. This is also a reason to mount different filesystem directories on different partitions. For example, if you only had partitions for your root (/) directory and swap space, someone uploading to your computer could fill up all of the space in your root directory (/). Without at least a little free space in the root directory (/), your system could become unstable or even crash. You have two ways to set quotas for users. You can limit users by inodes or by kilobytesized disk blocks. Every Linux file requires an inode. Therefore, you can limit users by the number of files or by absolute space. You can set up different quotas for different filesystems. For example, you can set different quotas for users on the /home and /tmp directories if they are mounted on their own partitions. Limits on disk blocks restrict the amount of disk space available to a user on your system. Older versions of Red Hat Linux included LinuxConf, which included a graphical tool to configure quotas. As of this writing, Red Hat no longer has a graphical quota configuration tool. Today, you can configure quotas on RHEL only through the command line interface.
1. vi /etc/fstab /dev/hda11 /data ext3 defaults,usrquota 1 2
2. Either Reboot the System or remount the partition.
Mount -o remount /dev/hda11 /data
3. touch /data/aquota.user
4. quotacheck -ufm /data
5. quotaon -u /data
6. edquota -u user1 /data and Specified the Soft limit and hard limit on opened file.
To verify either quota is working or not: Soft limit specify the limit to generate warnings to users and hard limit can’t cross by the user. Use the quota command or repquota command to monitor the quota information.
Question No : 13 One Logical Volume named lv1 is created under vg0. The Initial Size of that Logical Volume is 100MB. Now you required the size 500MB. Make successfully the size of that Logical Volume 500M without losing any data. As well as size should be increased online.
Answer and Explanation:
The LVM system organizes hard disks into Logical Volume (LV) groups. Essentially, physical hard disk partitions (or possibly RAID arrays) are set up in a bunch of equalsized chunks known as Physical Extents (PE). As there are several other concepts associated with the LVM system, let’s start with some basic definitions: Physical Volume (PV) is the standard partition that you add to the LVM mix. Normally, a physical volume is a standard primary or logical partition. It can also be a RAID array. Physical Extent (PE) is a chunk of disk space. Every PV is divided into a number of equal sized PEs. Every PE in a LV group is the same size. Different LV groups can have different sized PEs. Logical Extent (LE) is also a chunk of disk space. Every LE is mapped to a specific PE. Logical Volume (LV) is composed of a group of LEs. You can mount a filesystem such as /home and /var on an LV. Volume Group (VG) is composed of a group of LVs. It is the organizational group for LVM. Most of the commands that you’ll use apply to a specific VG.
1. Verify the size of Logical Volume: lvdisplay /dev/vg0/lv1
2. Verify the Size on mounted directory: df -h or df -h mounted directory name
3. Use : lvextend -L+400M /dev/vg0/lv1
4. ext2online -d /dev/vg0/lv1 to bring extended size online.
5. Again Verify using lvdisplay and df -h command.
4. Create one partitions having size 100MB and mount it on /data.
100-105 exam Answer and Explanation:
1. Use fdisk /dev/hda To create new partition.
2. Type n For New partitions
3. It will ask for Logical or Primary Partitions. Press l for logical.
4. It will ask for the Starting Cylinder: Use the Default by pressing Enter Key.
5. Type the Size: +100M You can Specify either Last cylinder of Size here.
6. Press P to verify the partitions lists and remember the partitions name.
7. Press w to write on partitions table.
8. Either Reboot or use partprobe command.
9. Use mkfs -t ext3 /dev/hda? Or mke2fs -j /dev/hda? To create ext3 filesystem.
10. vi /etc/fstab Write: /dev/hda? /data ext3 defaults 1 2
11. Verify by mounting on current Sessions also: mount /dev/hda? /data
Question No : 14. You are new System Administrator and from now you are going to handle the system and your main task is Network monitoring, Backup and Restore. But you don’t know the root password. Change the root password to redhat and login in default Runlevel.
Answer and Explanation:
When you Boot the System, it starts on default Runlevel specified in /etc/inittab: Id:?:initdefault: When System Successfully boot, it will ask for username and password. But you don’t know the root’s password. To change the root password you need to boot the system into single user mode. You can pass the kernel arguments from the boot loader.
1. Restart the System.
2. You will get the boot loader GRUB screen.
3. Press a and type 1 or s for single mode ro root=LABEL=/ rhgb queit s
4. System will boot on Single User mode.
5. Use passwd command to change.
6. Press ctrl+d
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