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QUESTION 1
Which three components should an administrator select when configuring vSphere permissions? (Choose
three.)
A. Inventory Object
B. Role
C. User/Group
D. Privilege
E. Password
Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
In vSphere, permission consists of a user or group and an assigned role for an inventory object, such as a
virtual machine or ESX/ESXi host. Permissions grant users the right to perform the activities specified by
the role on the object to which the role is assigned.
Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-4-esx-vcenter/index.jsp?topic=/
com.vmware.vsphere.dcadmin.doc_41/vsp_dc_admin_guide/man
aging_users_groups_roles_and_permissions/c_permissions.html

QUESTION 2
Which two methods are recommended for managing the VMware Directory Service? (Choose two.)
A. Utilize the vmdir command.
B. Manage through the vSphere Web Client.
C. Manage using the VMware Directory Service.
D. Utilize the dc rep command.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
To manage VMware directory service, you can use vmdir command and vsphere web client. VMware
directory service is always managed using vmdir command which is specifically used for directory
services.

QUESTION 3
Which password meets ESXi 6.x host password requirements?
A. 8kMVnn2x!
B. zNgtnJBA2
C. Nvgt34kn44
D. !b74wr
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A valid password requires a mix of upper and lower case letters, digits, and other characters. You can use
a 7-character long password with characters from at least three of these four classes, or a 6-character long
password containing characters from all the classes. A password that begins with an upper case letter and
ends with a numerical digit does not count towards the number of character classes used. It is
recommended that the password does not contain the username.
A passphrase requires at least 3 words, can be 8 to 40 characters long, and must contain enough different
characters.Reference:
http://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do?language=en_US&cmd=displayKC
&externalId=1012033

QUESTION 4
An administrator would like to use a passphrase for their ESXi 6.x hosts which has these characteristics:
Minimum of 21 characters
Minimum of 2 words
Which advanced options must be set to allow this passphrase configuration to be used?
A. retry=3 min=disabled, disabled, 7, 21, 7 passphrase=2
B. retry=3 min=disabled, disabled, 21, 7, 7 passphrase=2
C. retry=3 min=disabled, disabled, 2, 21, 7
D. retry=3 min=disabled, disabled, 21, 21, 2
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
To force a specific password complexity and disable all others, replace the number with the word with
disabled. For example, to force passwords containing characters from all four- character classes:
password requisite /lib/security/$ISA/pam_passwdqc.so retry=3 min=
disabled,disabled,disabled,disabled,7
Reference: http://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do? language=en_US&cmd=displayKC
&externalId=1012033

QUESTION 5
An object has inherited permissions from two parent objects.
What is true about the permissions on the object?
A. The common permissions between the two are applied and the rest are discarded.
B. The permissions are combined from both parent objects.
C. No permissions are applied from the parent objects.
D. The permission is randomly selected from either of the two parent objects.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Most inventory objects inherit permissions from a single parent object in the hierarchy. For example, a
datastore inherits permissions from either its parent datastore folder or parent datacenter. Virtual machines
inherit permissions from both the parent virtual machine folder and the parent host, cluster, or resource
pool simultaneously. To restrict a user’s privileges on a virtual machine, you must set permissions on both
the parent folder and the parent host, cluster, or resource pool for that virtual machine.
Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-4-esx-vcenter/index.jsp?topic=/
com.vmware.vsphere.dcadmin.doc_41/vsp_dc_admin_guide/man
aging_users_groups_roles_and_permissions/c_hierarchical_inheritance_of_permissions.ht ml

QUESTION 6
Which three options are available for ESXi Certificate Replacement? (Choose three.)
A. VMware Certificate Authority mode
B. Custom Certificate Authority mode
C. Thumbprint modeD. Hybrid Deployment
E. VMware Certificate Endpoint Authority Mode
Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
You can perform different types of certificate replacement depending on company policy and requirements
for the system that you are configuring. You can perform each replacement with the vSphere Certificate
Manager utility or manually by using the CLIs included with your installation.
VMCA is included in each Platform Services Controller and in each embedded deployment. VMCA
provisions each node, each vCenter Server solution user, and each ESXi host with a certificate that is
signed by VMCA as the certificate authority. vCenter Server solution users are groups of vCenter Server
services. See vSphere Security for a list of solution users.
You can replace the default certificates. For vCenter Server components, you can use a set of command-
line tools included in your installation. You have several options.
Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-60/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.install.doc%
2FGUID-4469A6D3-048A-471C- 9CB4-518A15EA2AC0.html

QUESTION 7
An administrator is able to manage an ESXi 6.x host connected to vCenter Server using the vSphere Web
Client but is unable to connect to the host directly.
Which action should the administrator take to correct this behavior?
A. Restart management agents on the ESXi host.
B. Disable Lockdown Mode on the ESXi host through vCenter Server.
C. Disable the ESXi firewall with the command esxcli network firewall unload.
D. Reboot the ESXi host.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Disable lockdown mode through the DCUI and then enable it through the vCenter Server instead. The
vCenter Server does not keep track of lockdown mode state changes that initiated outside of the vCenter
Server itself.
Reference: http://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do? language=en_US&cmd=displayKC
&externalId=2040768

QUESTION 8
Which three connection types are supported between a remote site and vCloud Air? (Choose three.)
A. Secure Internet Connectivity
B. Private Connect
C. Direct Connect
D. Internet Connectivity
E. Secure VPN
Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The connection types supported between a remote site and vcloud Air is secure VPN, direct connect and
Secure Internet Connectivity.

QUESTION 9
An administrator wants to configure an ESXi 6.x host to use Active Directory (AD) to manage users and
groups. The AD domain group ESX Admins is planned for administrative access to the host.
Which two conditions should be considered when planning this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. If administrative access for ESX Admins is not required, this setting can be altered.
B. The users in ESX Admins are not restricted by Lockdown Mode.
C. An ESXi host provisioned with Auto Deploy cannot store AD credentials.
D. The users in ESX Admins are granted administrative privileges in vCenter Server.
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The setting can be altered if administrative access for ESX admins is not required. The second rule is that
the ESX admins users should not be restricted by Lockdown mode.

QUESTION 10
An administrator wishes to give a user the ability to manage snapshots for virtual machines.
Which privilege does the administrator need to assign to the user?
A. Datastore.Allocate Space
B. Virtual machine.Configuration.create snapshot
C. Virtual machine.Configuration.manage snapshot
D. Datastore.Browse Datastore
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Datastore.Allocate space allows allocating space on a datastore for a virtual machine, snapshot, clone, or
virtual disk.
Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-51/index.jsp?topic= %2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.security.doc
%2FGUID-B2426ACC-D73F-4732-8BBC- DE9B1B2263D9.html

QUESTION 11
An administrator has configured three vCenter Servers and vRealize Orchestrator within a Platform
Services Controller domain, and needs to grant a user privileges that span all environments.
Which statement best describes how the administrator would accomplish this?
A. Assign a Global Permission to the user.
B. Assign a vCenter Permission to the user.
C. Assign vsphere.local membership to the user.
D. Assign an ESXi Permission to the user.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Global permissions are applied to a global root object that spans solutions, for example, both vCenter
Server and vCenter Orchestrator. Use global permissions to give a user or group privileges for all objects
in all object hierarchies.
Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-60/index.jsp?topic= %2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.security.doc%
2FGUID-C7702E31-1623-4189-89CB- E1136AA27972.html

QUESTION 12
Which two statements are correct regarding vSphere certificates? (Choose two.)
A. ESXi host upgrades do not preserve the SSL certificate and reissue one from the VMware Certificate
Authority (VMCA).
B. ESXi host upgrades preserve the existing SSL certificate.
C. ESXi hosts have assigned SSL certificates from the VMware Certificate Authority (VMCA) during install.
D. ESXi hosts have self-signed SSL certificates by default.
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Of course, ESXi host upgrades preserve existing SSL certificate and it also have assigned SSL certificates
from VMCA during the installation process.

QUESTION 13
An administrator is configuring the clock tolerance for the Single Sign-On token configuration policy and
wants to define the time skew tolerance between a client and the domain controller clock.
Which time measurement is used for the value?
A. Milliseconds
B. Seconds
C. Minutes
D. Hours
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The time skew tolerance between a client and the domain controller clock is measured in milliseconds.

QUESTION 14
Which three Authorization types are valid in vSphere? (Choose three.)
A. Group Membership in vsphere.local
B. Global
C. Forest
D. vCenter Server
E. Group Membership in system-domain
Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Sphere 6.0 and later allows privileged users to give other users permissions to perform tasks in the
following ways. These approaches are, for the most part, mutually exclusive; however, you can assign use
global permissions to authorize certain users for all solution, and local vCenter Server permissions to
authorize other users for individual vCenter Server systems.
vCenter ServerPermissions
The permission model for vCenter Server systems relies on assigning permissions to objects in the object
hierarchy of thatvCenter Server. Each permission gives one user or group a set of privileges, that is, a role
for a selected object. For example, you can select an ESXi host and assign a role to a group of users to
give those users the corresponding privileges on that host.
Global Permissions
Global permissions are applied to a global root object that spans solutions. For example, if both vCenter
Server and vCenter Orchestrator are installed, you can give permissions to all objects in both object
hierarchies using global permissions. Global permissions are replicated across the vsphere.local domain.
Global permissions to not provide authorization for services managed through vsphere.local groups. See
Global Permissions.Group Membership in vsphere.local Groups
The user [email protected] can perform tasks that are associated with services included with
the Platform Services Controller. In addition, members of a vsphere.local group can perform the
corresponding task. For example, you can perform license management if you are a member of the
LicenseService.Administrators group. See Groups in the vsphere.local Domain.
Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-60/index.jsp?topic= %2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.security.doc%
2FGUID-74F53189-EF41-4AC1-A78E- D25621855800.html

QUESTION 15
Which two roles can be modified? (Choose two.)
A. Administrator
B. Network Administrator
C. Datastore Consumer
D. Read-Only
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
It is a common knowledge that you cannot modify Administrator role and grant whatever privileges you like.
Same is the case with read-only. This role is created solely for ready only purposes. So you are left with
two viable options ?Network administrator and Datastore consumer both of which can be modified to add
or delete privileges according to your specifications.

QUESTION 16
An administrator would like to use the VMware Certificate Authority (VMCA) as an Intermediate Certificate
Authority (CA). The first two steps performed are:
Replace the Root Certificate
Replace Machine Certificates (Intermediate CA)
Which two steps would need to be performed next? (Choose two.)
A. Replace Solution User Certificates (Intermediate CA)
B. Replace the VMware Directory Service Certificate (Intermediate CA)
C. Replace the VMware Directory Service Certificate
D. Replace Solution User Certificates
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
You can replace the VMCA root certificate with a third-party CA-signed certificate that includes VMCA in
the certificate chain. Going forward, all certificates that VMCA generates include the full chain. You can
replace existing certificates with newly generated certificates. This approach combines the security of third-
party CA-signed certificate with the convenience of automated certificate management.
Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-60/index.jsp?topic= %2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.security.doc%
2FGUID-5FE583A2-3737-4B62- A905-5BB38D479AE0.html

QUESTION 17
Strict Lockdown Mode has been enabled on an ESXi host.
Which action should an administrator perform to allow ESXi Shell or SSH access for users with
administrator privileges?
A. Grant the users the administrator role and enable the service.
B. Add the users to Exception Users and enable the service.
C. No action can be taken, Strict Lockdown Mode prevents direct access.D. Add the users to vsphere.local and enable the service.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-60/index.jsp?topic= %2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.security.doc
%2FGUID-F8F105F7-CF93-46DF-9319- F8991839D265.html

QUESTION 18
An administrator is creating a new Content Library. It will subscribe to another remote Content Library
without authentication enabled.
What information from the published library will they need in order to complete the subscription?
A. Subscription URL
B. A security password from the publishing Content Library
C. Publisher’s Items.json file
D. Username from the publishing Content Library
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Subscription URL from the published library is needed to complete the subscription.

QUESTION 19
An administrator with global administrator privileges creates a custom role but fails to assign any privileges
to it.
Which two privileges would the custom role have? (Choose two.)
A. System.View
B. System.Anonymous
C. System.User
D. System.ReadOnly
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
When you add a custom role and do not assign any privileges to it, the role is created as a Read Only role
with three system-defined privileges: System.Anonymous, System.View, and System.Read.
Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-51/index.jsp?topic= %2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.security.doc
%2FGUID-93B962A7-93FA-4E96-B68F- AE66D3D6C663.html

QUESTION 20
An administrator runs the command esxcli storage core device list and sees the following output:
mpx.vmhba1:C0:T0:L0 Display Name: RAID 5 (mpx.vmhba1:C0:T0:L0) Has Settable Display Name: false
SizE. 40960 Device Type: Direct-Access Multipath Plugin: NMP Devfs Path: /vmfs/devices/disks/
mpx.vmhba1:C0:T0:L0 Status: off Is Local: true
What can be determined by this output?
A. The device is a being used for vFlash Read Cache.
B. The device is in a Permanent Device Loss (PDL) state.
C. The device is a local Solid State Device (SSD).
D. The device is in an All Paths Down (APD) state.Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://vmwaremine.com/2014/07/07/manage-psa-claimrules-satp-rules- esxcli/
#sthash.i6Esax8x.dpbs

QUESTION 21
Which two advanced features should be disabled for virtual machines that are only hosted on a vSphere
system? (Choose two.)
A. isolation.tools.unity.push.update.disable
B. isolation.tools.ghi.launchmenu.change
C. isolation.tools.bbs.disable
D. isolation.tools.hgfsServerSet.enable
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Because VMware virtual machines run in many VMware products in addition to vSphere, some virtual
machine parameters do not apply in a vSphere environment. Although these features do not appear in
vSphere user interfaces, disabling them reduces the number of vectors through which a guest operating
system could access a host. Use the following .vmx setting to disable these features:
isolation.tools.unity.push.update.disable = “TRUE” isolation.tools.ghi.l”unch”enu.change = “TRUE”
isolation.tools.ghi.a”tolo”on.disable = “TRUE” isolation.tools.hgfsS”rver”et.disable = “TRUE”
isolation.tools.memSc”edFa”eSampleStats.disable = “TRUE” isolation.tools.getCr”ds.d”sable = “TRUE”
Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-51/index.jsp?topic= %2Fcom.vmware.vmtools.install.doc%
2FGUID-685722FA-9009-439C-9142-18A9E7C592EA.html

QUESTION 22
Which two features are deprecated in Network I/O Control 3 (NIOC3)? (Choose two.)
A. Class Of Service (COS) Tagging
B. Bandwidth Allocation
C. User-defined network resource pools
D. Admission control
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Class of Service tagging and user-defined resource pools are deprecated in NIOC3.

QUESTION 23
Which three statements are correct regarding Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCOE)? (Choose three.)
A. The network switch must have Priority-based Flow Control (PFC) set to AUTO.
B. The network switch must have Priority-based Flow Control (PFC) set to ON.
C. Each port on the FCoE card must reside on the same vSwitch.
D. Each port on the FCoE card must reside on a separate vSwitch.
E. The ESXi host will require a reboot after moving an FCoE card to a different vSwitch.
Correct Answer: ADE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-55/index.jsp?topic= %2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.storage.doc%
2FGUID-6B49866F-7005-4099-84AC-4FB2A1A91F64.html

QUESTION 24
Which three are requirements for configuring Storage I/O Control (SIOC)? (Choose three.)
A. The datastore must consist of only one extent.
B. The datastore is managed by a single vCenter Server.
C. Auto-tiered storage must be compatable with SIOC.
D. Auto-tiered storage must be SSD or SATA.
E. The datastore must be VMFS.
Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Storage I/O Control (SIOC) is used to control the I/O usage of a virtual machine and to gradually enforce
the predefined I/O share levels. SIOC is supported on Fibre Channel and iSCSI connected storage in ESX/
ESXi 4.1 and 5.0. With ESXi 5.0 support for NFS with SIOC was also added. Datastores with multiple
extents or Raw Device Mapping (RDM) are currently not supported.
Reference: http://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do? language=en_US&cmd=displayKC
&externalId=1022091

QUESTION 25
Refer to the Exhibit.
A Storage Policy for a Virtual SAN is set to the default policy, as shown in the Exhibit.
Which change would reduce the storage consumption by one third?
A. Number of failures to tolerate = 1
B. Number of disk stripes per object = 2
C. Number of failures to tolerate = 3
D. Number of disk stripes per object = 1Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Number of failures to tolerate defines the number of host, disk, or network failures a virtual machine object
can tolerate. For n failures tolerated, n+1 copies of the virtual machine object are created and 2n+1 hosts
with storage are required.
Default value is 1. Maximum value is 3.
Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-55/index.jsp?topic= %2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.storage.doc%
2FGUID-C8E919D0-9D80-4AE1-826B- D180632775F3.html

QUESTION 26
An administrator created a six node Virtual SAN cluster, created a fault domain, and moved three of the six
nodes into that domain.
A node that is a member of the fault domain fails.
What is the expected result?
A. The remaining two fault domain members are treated as failed.
B. The remaining two fault domain members stay protected by the domain.
C. One of the non-member nodes will be automatically added to the fault domain.
D. VMware High Availability will restart virtual machines on remaining nodes in the domain.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
When the member of the fault domain fails, the remaining two fault domain members are treated as failed
too.

QUESTION 27
A device’s vStorage API for Array Integration (VAAI) support status command line output shows:
naa.500253825002a865 VAAI Plugin Name: ATS Status: unsupported Clone Status:
unsupported Zero Status: supported Delete Status: unsupported
What is the corresponding VAAI support status in the vSphere Web Client?
A. Unknown
B. Supported
C. Not supported
D. Unsupported
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The VAAI support status will be unknown.
Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-55/index.jsp?topic= %2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.storage.doc%
2FGUID-0520FD37-D7AD-4FBA-9A2E- E5F8211FCBBB.html

QUESTION 28
Where is a Virtual SAN Fault Domain configured?
A. VMware Virtual SAN Cluster configuration
B. VMware High Availability Cluster configuration
C. Distributed Resource Scheduler configurationD. Datacenter Advanced Settings configuration
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
If your Virtual SAN cluster spans across multiple racks or blade server chassis in a data center and you
want to make sure that your hosts are protected against rack or chassis failure, you can create fault
domains and add one or more hosts to it.
A fault domain consists of one or more Virtual SAN hosts grouped together according to their physical
location in the data center. When configured, fault domains enable Virtual SAN to tolerate failures of entire
physical rack as well as failures of a single host, capacity device, network link or a network switch
dedicated to fault domains. Fault domains cannot be configured for stretched or metro clusters.
The number of failures your cluster can tolerate depends on the number of failures a virtual machine is
provisioned to tolerate. For example, when a virtual machine is configured with Number of failures to
tolerate=1 and using multiple fault domains, Virtual SAN can tolerate a single failure of any kind and of any
component in a fault domain, including the failure of an entire rack.
When you configure fault domains on a rack and provision a new virtual machine, Virtual SAN ensures that
protection objects, such as replicas and witnesses are placed on different fault domains. If, for example, a
virtual machine’s storage policy is Number of failures to tolerate=n, Virtual SAN requires a minimum of 2*n
+1 fault domains in the cluster. When virtual machines are provisioned in a cluster with fault domains using
this policy, the copies of the associated virtual machine objects are stored across separate racks.
Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-60/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.virtualsan.doc
%2FGUID-8491C4B0-6F94- 4023-8C7A-FD7B40D0368D.html

QUESTION 29
What are two use cases for Fibre Channel Zoning in a vSphere environment? (Choose two.)
A. Increases the number of targets presented to an ESXi host.
B. Controls and isolates paths in a fabric.
C. Controls and isolates paths to an NFS share.
D. Can be used to separate different environments.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Zoning provides access control in the SAN topology. Zoning defines which HBAs can connect to which
targets. When you configure a SAN by using zoning, the devices outside a zone are not visible to the
devices inside the zone.
Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-55/index.jsp?topic= %2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.storage.doc%
2FGUID-E7818A5D-6BD7-4F51-B4BA- EFBF2D3A8357.html

QUESTION 30
Which two statements are true regarding VMFS3 volumes in ESXi 6.x? (Choose two.)
A. Creation of VMFS3 volumes is unsupported.
B. Upgrading VMFS3 volumes to VMFS5 is supported.
C. Existing VMFS3 volumes are unsupported.
D. Upgrading VMFS3 volumes to VMFS5 is unsupported.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
While a VMFS-3, which is upgraded to VMFS-5, provides you with most of the capabilities as a newly
created VMFS-5, there are some differences. Both upgraded and newly created VMFS-5 support single-extent volumes up to 64TB and both support VMDK sizes of ~2TB, no matter what the VMFS file-block
size is. However additional differences, although minor, should be considered when making a decision
whether to upgrade to VMFS-5 or create new VMFS-5 volumes.
Reference: http://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/techpaper/ VMFS-5_Upgrade_Considerations.pdf

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-115 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-18)
QUESTION 1
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Match the HSRP states on the left with the correct definition on the right.
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PortFast / BPDU Guard / BPDU Filter.
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PVST+ / Rapid PVST+ / MSTP
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Port Cost / Switch Port Priority / Port Priority
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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 210-255 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-15)

QUESTION 1
Which network device creates and sends the initial packet of a session?
A. source
B. origination
C. destination
D. network
210-255 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
In the context of incident handling phases, which two activities fall under scoping? (Choose two.)
A. determining the number of attackers that are associated with a security incident
B. ascertaining the number and types of vulnerabilities on your network
C. identifying the extent that a security incident is impacting protected resources on the network
D. determining what and how much data may have been affected
E. identifying the attackers that are associated with a security incident
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 3
Which string matches the regular expression r(ege)+x?
A. rx
B. regeegex
C. r(ege)x
D. rege+x
210-255 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which source provides reports of vulnerabilities in software and hardware to a Security Operations Center?
A. Analysis Center
B. National CSIRT
C. Internal CSIRT
D. Physical Security
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
From a security perspective, why is it important to employ a clock synchronization protocol on a network?
A. so that everyone knows the local time
B. to ensure employees adhere to work schedule
C. to construct an accurate timeline of events when responding to an incident
D. to guarantee that updates are pushed out according to schedule
210-255 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which element is part of an incident response plan?
A. organizational approach to incident response
B. organizational approach to security
C. disaster recovery
D. backups
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What mechanism does the Linux operating system provide to control access to files?
A. privileges required
B. user interaction
C. file permissions
D. access complexity
210-255 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
210-255
You notice that the email volume history has been abnormally high.
Which potential result is true?
A. Email sent from your domain might be filtered by the recipient.
B. Messages sent to your domain may be queued up until traffic dies down.
C. Several hosts in your network may be compromised.
D. Packets may be dropped due to network congestion.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
210-255 dumps
Which type of log is this an example of?
A. IDS log
B. proxy log
C. NetFlow log
D. syslog
210-255 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
210-255 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from this ping result?
A. The public IP address of cisco.com is 2001:420:1101:1::a.
B. The Cisco.com website is down.
C. The Cisco.com website is responding with an internal IP.
D. The public IP address of cisco.com is an IPv4 address.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which option has a drastic impact on network traffic because it can cause legitimate traffic to be blocked?
A. true positive
B. true negative
C. false positive
D. false negative
210-255 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You have run a suspicious file in a sandbox analysis tool to see what the file does. The analysis report shows that outbound callouts were made post infection. Which two pieces of information from the analysis report are needed or required to investigate the callouts? (Choose two.)
A. file size
B. domain names
C. dropped files
D. signatures
E. host IP addresses
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 13
Which goal of data normalization is true?
A. Reduce data redundancy.
B. Increase data redundancy.
C. Reduce data availability.
D. Increase data availability
210-255 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which CVSSv3 metric value increases when the attacker is able to modify all files protected by the vulnerable component?
A. confidentiality
B. integrity
C. availability
D. complexity
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
210-255 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of log is this an example of?
A. syslog
B. NetFlow log
C. proxy log
D. IDS log
210-255 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which type of analysis allows you to see how likely an exploit could affect your network?
A. descriptive
B. casual
C. probabilistic
D. inferential
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which type of analysis assigns values to scenarios to see what the outcome might be in each scenario?
A. deterministic
B. exploratory
C. probabilistic
D. descriptive
210-255 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which description of a retrospective maKvare detection is true?
A. You use Wireshark to identify the malware source.
B. You use historical information from one or more sources to identify the affected host or file.
C. You use information from a network analyzer to identify the malware source.
D. You use Wireshark to identify the affected host or file.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which two components are included in a 5-tuple? (Choose two.)
A. port number
B. destination IP address
C. data packet
D. user name
E. host logs
210-255 dumps Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 20
Which CVSSv3 metric value increases when attacks consume network bandwidth, processor cycles, or disk space?
A. confidentiality
B. integrity
C. availability
D. complexity
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
You see confidential data being exfiltrated to an IP address that is attributed to a known Advanced Persistent Threat group. Assume that this is part of a real attach and not a network misconfiguration. Which category does this event fall under as defined in the Diamond Model of Intrusion?
A. reconnaissance
B. weaponization
C. delivery
D. action on objectives
210-255 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which regular expression matches “color” and “colour”?
A. col[0-9]+our
B. colo?ur
C. colou?r
D. ]a-z]{7}
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
Which feature is used to find possible vulnerable services running on a server?
A. CPU utilization
B. security policy
C. temporary internet files
D. listening ports
210-255 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Which element is included in an incident response plan?
A. organization mission
B. junior analyst approval
C. day-to-day firefighting
D. siloed approach to communications
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Drag and drop the type of evidence from the left onto the correct descnption(s) of that evidence on the right.
Select and Place:
210-255 dumps
210-255 exam Correct Answer:

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the element name from the left onto the correct piece of the NetFlow v5 record from a security event on the right.

Select and Place:

210-255 dumps Correct Answer:

QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the element name from the left onto the correct piece of the PCAP file on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 28
Drag and drop the elements of incident handling from the left into the correct order on the right.
Select and Place:
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210-255 pdf Correct Answer:
210-255 dumps

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QUESTION 1
You are developing a WCF service. A new service instance must be created for each client request. You need to choose an instancing mode.
Which instancing mode should you use?
A. Single
B. PerRequest
C. PerCall
D. Multiple
E. PerSession
70-494 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 2
You are developing a WCF service that compares several data sources. The service takes a long time to complete. The service must meet the following requirements: The client must be able to continue processing while the service is running. The service must initiate communication with the client application when processing is complete. You need to choose a message pattern to meet the requirements. Which message pattern should you choose?
A. One Way
B. Streaming
C. Duplex
D. Request/Reply
70-494 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 3
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application that reads and writes data from a SQL Server database. You need to maintain data integrity including retrieving identical sets across reads in all situations that use transactions. Which isolation level should you use?
A. Repeatable
B. Serializable
C. ReadUncommitted
D. ReadCommitted
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: REPEATABLE READ
Specifies that statements cannot read data that has been modified but not yet committed by other transactions and that no other transactions can modify data that has been read by the current transaction until the current transaction completes.

QUESTION 4
You develop an ASP.NET MVC application that is secured by using SSL. You are ready to deploy the application to production. The deployment package must include the installation of the SSL certificate. You need to configure the deployment package to meet the requirement. What should you do?
A. Create a web publish pipeline target file with a custom web deploy target.
B. In the Package/Publish settings of the project, select the All Files in this project option.
C. Extend the CopyAllFilesToSingleFolder target in the project file.
D. In the Build Events settings of the project, configure a pre-build event to include the SSL certificate.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 5
You are developing a .NET application that uses the HttpClient type to call an ASP.NET Web API application. The API call returns a list of customers in JSON format and logs the results. The URI for the API call is in a variable named address. You need to make the API call without blocking. Which code segment should you use?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
70-494 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Example:
// Create an HttpClient instance
11: HttpClient client = new HttpClient();
12:
13: // Send a request asynchronously continue when complete
14: client.GetAsync(_address).ContinueWith(
15: (requestTask) =>
16: {
17: // Get HTTP response from completed task.
18: HttpResponseMessage response = requestTask.Result;
19:
20: // Check that response was successful or throw exception
21: response.EnsureSuccessStatusCode();
22:
23: // Read response asynchronously as JsonValue and write out top facts for each country
24: response.Content.ReadAsAsync().ContinueWith(
25: (readTask) =>

QUESTION 6
You are preparing to develop a set of libraries for a company. The libraries must be shared across the company. You need to create a remote NuGet feed that exposes the libraries.What should you do? (Each answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Install the NuGet.Feed Package.
B. Install the NuGet.Server Package.
C. Configure the Packages folder located in the system.webserver section of the web application’s Web.config.
D. Create a new Empty Web Site in Visual Studio 2012.
E. Configure the Packages folder located in the appSettings section of the web application’s Web.config.
F. Add packages to the Packages folder.
G. Create a new Empty Web Application in Visual Studio 2012.
70-494 pdf Correct Answer: BEFG
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Explanation/Reference:
70-494 dumps

QUESTION 7
You are designing an ASP.NET Web API application. You need to select an HTTP verb to allow blog administrators to moderate a comment.
Which HTTP verb should you use?
A. GET
B. POST
C. DELETE
D. PUT
70-494 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 8
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application that reads and writes data from a SQL Server database. You need to prevent the application from reading data that is locked by other transactions. You also need to prevent exclusive range locks. Which isolation level should you use?
A. ReadCommitted
B. Serializable
C. Repeatable
D. ReadUncommitted
70-494 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 9
You are developing an application in Visual Studio 2012 to display student information. The application contains the following Entity Framework model.
70-494 dumps
The application contains a WCF data service named DirectoryService.svc. You need to create a query expression to display all of the grades for students whose first name is “John” How should you build the expression?
A. http://localhost:54946/DirectoryService.svc/Students?$filter=FirstName eq ‘John’ &$expand=Grades
B. http://localhost:54946/DirectoryService.svc/Students?$filter=FirstName eq ‘John’/Grades
C. http://localhost:54946/DirectoryService.svc/Students?$filter=FirstName = ‘John’ &$expand=Grades
D. http://localhost:54946/DirectoryService.svc/Grades/Students?$filter=FirstName eq ‘John’
70-494 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 10
You are preparing to develop a set of libraries that uses large data sets. The libraries must be shared across an organization and distributed to several servers. You need to create a remote NuGet feed that exposes the libraries for developer use. What should you do? (Each answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Add packages to the Packages folder.
B. Create a new Empty Web Application in Visual Studio.
C. Configure the Packages folder located in the appSettings section of the web application’s Web.config.
D. Install the NuGet.DataFeed Package.
E. Install the NuGet.Server Package.
F. Create a new Empty Web Site in Visual Studio.
Correct Answer: ABCE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Creating Remote Feeds
You can host a remote (or internal) feed on a server that runs IIS. Step 1 (B): Create a new Empty Web Application in Visual Studio Step 2 (E): Install the NuGet.Server Package
Step 3 (C): Configure the Packages folder
Step 4 (A): Add Packages to the Packages folder
Step 5: Deploy and run your brand new Package Feed!
Reference: Hosting Your Own NuGet Feeds

QUESTION 11
You are developing a WCF service. A new service instance must be created for each client session. You need to choose an instancing mode.
Which instance mode should you use?
A. PerCall
B. Single
C. Multiple
D. PerSession
E. PerRequest
70-494 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 12
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application. Deployment administrators do not have access to Visual Studio 2102, but will have the elevated permissions required to deploy the application to the servers. You need to select a deployment tool for use by the deployment administrators.
Which tool should you use?
A. Publish Web Site Tool
B. Web Deployment Package
C. One-Click Publish
D. Deployment Package Editor
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 13
You are planning to migrate websites from IIS 6 to IIS 7.5. You do not have access to SSH or a VPN. You need to select a deployment tool to securely migrate the websites. Which tool should you use?
A. RoboCopy
B. Web Deploy
C. Microsoft command-line FTP
D. xCopy
70-494 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 14
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC web application that contains the following HTML. You also have an ASP.NET Web API application that contains a call for retrieving customers. You must send and retrieve the data in the most compact format possible. You need to update the HTML for the customers table to contain data from the Web API application. Which script segment should you use?
70-494 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 15
DRAG DROP
You are developing an ASP.NET Web API for a home inventory management system. You need to limit access to users with IP addresses based only in the United States. You have the following code:
70-494 dumps
Which code segments should you include in Target 1 and Target 2 to complete the code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct targets in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
70-494 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-494 dumps

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

70-494 dumps
70-494 dumps
70-494 dumps
70-494 dumps
Visual Studio and .NET

  • 70-490: Recertification for MCSD: Windows Store Apps Using HTML5
  • 70-491: Recertification for MCSD: Windows Store Apps Using C#
  • 70-494: Recertification for MCSD: Web Applications
  • 70-499: Recertification for MCSD: Application Lifecycle Management

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-135 Dumps Exam Q&As(46-51)

QUESTION 46
A construction company is about to start a new project. It requires hiring a project manager for this project. Which of the following are the most important skills that a person must have to be selected as a project manager?
A. Problem solving
B. Team building and human resources
C. Leading
D. Communication
E. Negotiation and influential
300-135 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A good project manager must have all of the above mentioned skills. Out of these, the communication skills are the most important skills for a project manager. Communications skills are part of general management skills and are used to exchange information. Communication has many dimensions: Written and oral, listening, and speaking Internal (within the project) and external (customer, the media, the public) Formal (reports, briefings) and informal (memos, ad hoc conversations) Vertical (up and down the organization) and horizontal (with peers) Communication is the most important skill that a project manager must posses. It is the single most important characteristics of a top-class project manager. Project managers must communicate well in order to integrate and maximize the performance of team members. Oral and written communications are the backbone of every successful project. During different phases of a project, a project manager requires to communicate through different manners (for example, documentation, meeting updates, etc.) and he must ensure that the information communicated is explicit, clear, and complete. Answer options E, C, A, and B are incorrect. All these mentioned skills make a person a good project manager. Communication skills top the list. What are organizational skills? Organizational skills are part of management skills to organize various aspects of a project in order to complete it successfully. A good project manager uses these skills to successfully organize his meetings, as well as to keep documentations, quotes, contracts, etc., which can be fetched at any given moment. Organizational skills also include planning and time management skills. What are budgeting skills? Budgeting skills include the knowledge of finance and accounting principles. A project manager must possess these skills in order to perform cost estimates for project budgeting. Reading and understanding quotes, preparing purchase orders, and reconciling purchase invoices are all part of budgeting skills. In order to make the budget of a project, the project manager must have excellent budgeting skills. What are problem solving skills? Problem solving skills include the ability to define and analyze problems, and to take decisions in order to solve the problems by implementing those decisions. Every project manager must possess strong problem solving skills. Problem solving is a two-fold process: Defining the problem Taking a decision and then
implementing it A project manager is responsible for determining the best course of action to take in order to resolve the problem. What are negotiating and influencing skills? Negotiating skills includes demanding and convincing others for the rightful thing or act. A project manager needs this skill to negotiate on projects in almost every area such as scope definitions, budgets, contracts, resource assignments, schedules, etc. Influencing skills include the convincing power of a person. It is an ability to change minds and the course of events. A good project manager requires these skills to utilize them in all areas of project management.

QUESTION 47
Which of the following individuals has a management role in a core business area, such as research and development, design, manufacturing, provisioning, testing, or maintenance?
A. Functional manager
B. Operations manager
C. Project manager
D. Seller
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The role of operations manager is to perform various management roles in a core business area, such as research and development, design, manufacturing, provisioning, testing, or maintenance. The operations manager directly deals with constructing and maintaining the saleable products or services of the enterprise. Answer option C is incorrect. A project manager is an expert in the field of project management. He is responsible for the entire project from inception to completion. The project manager leads the team and helps negotiate the multiple relationships within any project whether with clients, team members, firm principals or any variety of partners and functions as the hub of a project. Answer option A is incorrect. The
role of a functional manager is to perform various management roles within an administrative or functional area of the business, such as human resources, finance, accounting, or procurement. He is assigned his own permanent staff to carry out the ongoing work. He should have a clear directive to manage all tasks within his functional area of responsibility. Answer option D is incorrect. Seller is also known as a vendor, supplier or contractor. They are external company’s elements that enter into a contractual agreement to provide components or services necessary for the project.

QUESTION 48
John is the project manager for his organization. He has created a status dashboard for his stakeholders. What is a status dashboard?
A. It is a report that details the current status of risks and issues.
B. It is a software application that allows stakeholders to view the project manager’s performance.
C. It is a web-based tool to inspect the project deliverables for performance.
D. It is a report that reflects the overall performance of scope, schedule, quality, cost, or other project performance metrics.
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Of all the choices, the best explanation is that a dashboard is a report for quick review of the project’s performance metrics. While there are some software solutions, they still focus on the key performance criteria of the project. Answer option C is incorrect. This answer defines the definition of quality control, not the dashboard’s review of project performance. Answer option B is incorrect. Dashboards focus on the performance of the project’s key performance factors, not the project manager. Answer option A is incorrect. A status report could include the details of the project’s risks and issues, but usually not the dashboard.

QUESTION 49
You have been hired as a project manager for Tech Perfect Inc. You are studying the documentation of planning of a project. The documentation states that there are twenty-five stakeholders with the project. What will be the number of communication channels for the project?
A. 300
B. 50
C. 600
D. 25
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
According to the question, the project has twenty-five stakeholders. Communication channels are paths of communication with stakeholders in a project. The number of communication channels shows the complexity of a project’s communication and can be derived through the formula shown below: Total Number of Communication Channels = n (n-1)/2 where, n is the number of stakeholders. Hence, a project  having five stakeholders will have ten communication channels. Putting the value of the number of stake holder in the formula will provide the number of communication channels: Number of communication channel = (n (n-1)) / 2 = (25 (25-1)) / 2 = (25 x 24) / 2 = 600 / 2 = 300 Who are project stakeholders?
Project stakeholders are those entities within or without an organization, which: Sponsor a project or, Have an interest or a gain upon a successful completion of a project. Examples of project stakeholders include the customer, the user group, the project manager, the development team, the testers, etc. Stakeholders are anyone who has an interest in the project. Project stakeholders are individuals and organizations that are actively involved in the project, or whose interests may be affected as a result of project execution or project completion. They may also exert influence over the project’s objectives and outcomes. The project management team must identify the stakeholders, determine their requirements and expectations, and, to the extent possible, manage their influence in relation to the requirements to ensure a successful project.

QUESTION 50
You are the project manager of the GHY Project. This project is scheduled to last for one year and has a BAC of $4,500,000. You are currently 45 percent complete with this project, though you are supposed to be at your second milestone which accounts for half of the project completion. There have been some errors in the project, which has caused you to spend $2,073,654. What is this project’s schedule variance?
A. -$48,654
B. 13 percent
C. -$225,000
D. 0.98
300-135 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
he schedule variance can be found by subtracting the planned value form the earned value. In this instance, it is $2,025,000 minus $2,250,000. SV = 2,025,000 – 2,250,000 = -225,000 Schedule variance (SV) is a measure of schedule performance on a project. The variance notifies that the schedule is ahead or behind what was planned for this period in time. The schedule variance is calculated based on the following formula: SV = Earned Value (EV) – Planned Value (PV) If the resulting schedule is negative, it indicates that the project is behind schedule. A value greater than 0 shows that the project is ahead of the planned schedule. A value of 0 indicates that the project is right on target. Answer option A is incorrect.
This is the cost variance for the project. Answer option B is incorrect. 13 percent is not a valid answer. Answer option D is incorrect. This is not a valid variance for this question; variances are typically negative numbers.

QUESTION 51
The figure given below demonstrates the communication model for a project. What role does the component E play in the communications model?
A. Static
B. Deterrent
C. Noise
D. Barrier
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Noise is anything that disrupts the communication method such as static on the telephone line, distracting conversations, or misunderstandings.
Answer option A is incorrect. Static is an example of noise, but it is not part of the communication model.
Answer option D is incorrect. A barrier to communication is when communication cannot happen under the present conditions.
Answer option B is incorrect. A deterrent is not a valid part of the communication model.

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 210-451 Dumps Exam Q&As(6-46)

QUESTION 6
The Cisco InterCloud Fabric Director provides what functionality?
A. It is the single point of management and consumption for hybrid Cloud solutions.
B. It is the single point of management and consumption for public Cloud solutions.
C. It is the single point of management and consumption for private Cloud solutions.
D. It is a plugin of a Virtual Machine Manager to provide management and configuration for hybrid Cloud solutions.
210-451 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which two options are benefits of the Cisco InterCloud Solution? (Choose two.)
A. enforces standardization on a single hypervisor product
B. provides self service for hybrid resources
C. management of heterogeneous SAN solutions
D. secure connectivity between public and private Clouds
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
Which two options are characteristics of NAS? (Choose two.)
A. NAS provides block-based storage only.
B. NAS provides storage and filesystems.
C. NAS requires no authentication.
D. SMB is a protocol that can be used for NAS.
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
Which option is one essential characteristic of Cloud computing?
A. It must use virtualization.
B. It must provide load balancing services.
C. It must provide on-demand self service.
D. It must run on open source software.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which description of RAID6 is true?
A. block-level striping of data with double distributed parity
B. drive-level striping of data with double distributed parity
C. block-level striping of data with single distributed parity
D. block-level mirroring of data with double distributed parity
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Where is the Hypervisor installed?
A. Host operating system
B. Guest operating system
C. Control node
D. Computer node
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which API structure does Cisco UCS Manager support?
A. JSON
B. XML
C. RUBY
D. PERL
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which of the following situation would not impair audit objectivity?
A. An auditor is assigned to audit a business function that the auditor was responsible for nine months ago
B. An individual temporarily assigned to the internal audit activity because of the individual’sexpert knowledge in a particular business function assigned to audit an activity that theindividual was responsible for just prior to transferring to the internal audit activity
C. An auditor is assigned to perform a post-implementation review on a system for which the auditor participated in the design process
D. An auditor is assigned to perform a post-implementation review on a system for which the auditor performed a procedure review and made control recommendations prior to the system’s implementation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Internal auditing:
A. Is an independent, objective assurance and consulting activity designed to add value and improve anorganization’s operations
B. Is an independent, performance measurement and consulting activity designed to addValue and improve an organization’s operations
C. Helps an organization accomplish objectives by bringing a systematic, disciplinedApproach to evaluate but rarely improve the effectiveness of risk management, control and governance
D. Helps an organization accomplish objectives by bringing a targeted, disciplined approach to evaluate but rarely improve the effectiveness of risk management, control and governance
210-451 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
IIA’s code of ethics applies to __________ that provide internal auditing services:
A. Individuals
B. Entities
C. Individuals and entities
D. Individuals, entities and indirect authorities
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Internal auditors are expected to uphold the following principles:
A. Integrity, objectivity, competency
B. Integrity, objectivity, confidentiality, and competency
C. Integrity, objectivity, awareness and competency
D. Integrity, objectivity, entirety
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
“Internal auditors make a balanced assessment of all the relevant circumstances and are not unduly influenced by their own interests or by others in forming judgments.” This statement best explains one of the following principles:
A. Competency
B. Confidentiality
C. Objectivity
D. Integrity
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Internal auditors, engaging in activities that are illegal and discreditable to the profession of internal auditing or the organization, violate which of the following principles:
A. Objectivity
B. Awareness
C. Integrity
D. Competence
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which of the following statements is NOT related to competency principle of internal auditing? Internal auditors:
A. Shall continually improve their proficiency and effectiveness and quality of their services
B. Shall perform internal auditing services in accordance with the standards for the professional practice of internal auditing
C. Shall engage only in those services for which they have the necessary knowledge, skills and experience
D. Shall disclose all material facts known to them that, if not disclosed, may distort the reporting of activities under review
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
While performing consulting services internal auditors should specifically maintain:
A. Proficiency level
B. Objectivity
C. Competence
D. Confidentiality
210-451 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
All these statements elaborate purpose of standards EXCEPT:
A. Foster improved organizational processes and operations
B. Establish the basis for the evaluation of internal audit performance
C. Subvert the framework for performing and promoting broad range of value-added internal audit activities.
D. Delineate basic principles that represent the practice of internal auditing as it should be
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Nature of internal audit activities and quality criteria against which the performance of these services can be evaluated is best portrayed by:
A. Performance Standards
B. Attribute Standards
C. Implementation Standards
D. Evaluation Standards
210-451 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
There are multiple sets of attribute and performance standards:
A. False
B. True
C. True- In specific conditions
D. False- In specific conditions
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
All of the following phrases are used to express the auditor’s opinion EXCEPT:
A. Give a true and fair view
B. Present fairly, in all material respects
C. Timely and consistent opinion
D. Comprehensible and realistic view
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
The auditor should plan an audit with an attitude of:
A. Professional competence
B. Professional skepticism
C. Subject awareness
D. Opinion sharing
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
Which of the following is a limitation in an audit that affects auditors’ ability to detect material misstatements?
A. Scope of an audit
B. The use of testing
C. Over- generalization
D. Unidentifiable risks
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Reasonable assurance relates to the:
A. Audit planning process
B. Scope of the internal audit
C. End of the audit process
D. Whole audit process
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
The responsibility for preparing and presenting the audited financial statements is that of:
A. Internal auditor
B. Engagement client/ Management of the entity
C. Process owner
D. Auditing Agency
210-451 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
All these are disparities in public and private sector audits EXCEPT:
A. Objective and scope
B. Specific requirements of relevant regulation, ordinances or ministerial directives
C. Specific and broad range mandate in public sector
D. Reasonable assurance
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
Which one of the following is an internal control component?
A. Compliance control
B. Control activities
C. Financial Reporting Controls
D. Communication channels and network
210-451 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
Management must ___________ assess business risk and develop clearly defined control objectives:
A. Continually
B. Annually
C. Periodically
D. Weekly
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
Internal audit routinely reviews compliance risk and also should be reviewing business risk. The efforts to control both risk types will purely enhance:
A. The short-term profitability and viability of an organization
B. The long-term profitability and viability of an organization
C. Both short-term and long-term profitability and viability of an organization
D. None of these
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
Following statements define risk EXCEPT:
A. Organization has knowledge of facts constituting a dangerous condition
B. Organization voluntarily exposes itself to the danger
C. The element of assurance in an undertaking
D. Measured in terms of impact and likelihood
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 34
Strategic planning is the process of taking a long-term view of the organization, the longer the view, the greater the uncertainty of risks and opportunities. Such reservations can better be handled by:
A. Timely decisions
B. Flexible/ Adaptive plans and processes
C. Periodic risk assessments
D. Focusing on current period organizational activity
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
High-risk scores are those with an average of scores:
A. 3.75 or more
B. 3.25 or more
C. 4.25 or more
D. 4.00 or more
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
Low-risk scores are those with an average of scores:
A. 2.25 or less
B. 2.75 or less
C. 2.00 or less
D. 3.25 or less
210-451 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
Risks inherent in the management process are known as:
A. Residual risks
B. Long-term risks
C. Control risks
D. Strategic risks
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 38
Both residual and control risk need to be_______________ dealt with in project management.
A. Timely
B. Implicitly
C. Professionally
D. Explicitly
210-451 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 39
“Ongoing monitoring activities are conducted to periodically reassess risk and the effectiveness of control
risk,” is an objective of:
A. Risk Identification
B. Risk Measurement
C. Risk Management Process
D. Risk Prioritization
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 40
Faulty human judgments, misunderstanding of instructions, errors, management override, and collusion
and cost/benefit considerations are the limitations of:
A. Reasonable Assurance
B. Internal Control System
C. Risk Management
D. Compliance Control
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 41
Five internal control components are:
A. Control environment, Risk assessment, Control activities, Information and communication & Monitoring
B. Control environment, Risk assessment, and Operational control, Information and communication & Monitoring
C. Control environment, Risk Prioritization, Control activities, Information and communication & Monitoring
D. Control environment, Risk Prioritization, Control activities, Information and communication & Monitoring
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 42
Enterprise risk management encompasses all EXCEPT:
A. Aligning risk appetite and strategy
B. Enhancing risk responsibilities and decisions
C. Increasing Operational Surprises
D. Seizing Opportunities
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 43
Organization’s Objectives are described in three general categories:
A. Effectiveness of operations, Efficiency of strategic plans, Reliability of internal and external reporting
B. Effectiveness of operations, Efficiency of strategic plans, Reliability of internal and external reporting, compliance with applicable laws and regulations
C. Effectiveness and Efficiency of operations, Compliance with applicable laws and regulations, Monitoring and management control system
D. Effectiveness and Efficiency of operations, Reliability of internal and external reporting, Compliance
with applicable laws and regulations
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 44
The plans developed for the audit functions should be updated as circumstances dictate. Such specific types of plans include all EXCEPT:
A. Activity Reports
B. Target dates
C. Opportunities and threats
D. Staffing plans and financial budgets
210-451 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 45
Which one of the following statements is NOT the part of audit work schedule?
A. The extent and type of findings in the last audit
B. Loss of assets, errors and fraud
C. The availability of audit staff resources
D. Opportunities to achieve operations benefits
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 46
Risk is the probability that an event or action may adversely affect the organization or activity under review. In other words, risk is anything that can prevent an organization from achieving an objective. Major components of risk are as follows EXCEPT:
A. Non- Compliance with the laws, rules and regulations
B. An event or cause that can interfere with achieving the objective (e.g. What can go wrong?)
C. A probability or likelihood of occurrence
D. The negative consequences of not achieving the objective
210-451 exam Correct Answer: A

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Question No : 5 – (Topic 1)  Refer to the exhibit
100-105 dumps

Host A is sending a packet to Host B for the first time. What destination MAC address will Host A use in the ARP request?
A. 192.168.0.1
B. 172.16.0.50
C. 00-17-94-61-18-b0
D. 00-19-d3-2d-c3-b2
E. ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff
F. 255.255.255.255
100-105 exam Answer: E
Explanation:
For the initial communication, Host A will send a broadcast ARP (all F’s) to determine the correct address to use to reach the destination. ARP sends an Ethernet frame called an ARP request to every host on the shared link-layer legmen. The Ethernet header includes the source host MAC address and a destination address of all Fs representing a broadcast frame. The ARP request contains the sender’s MAC and IP address and the target (destination) IP address. 
Question No : 6 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit
100-105 dumps

What kind of cable should be used to make each connection that is identified by the numbers shown?
A.
1 – Ethernet Crossover cable
2 – Ethernet straight-through cable
3 – Fiber Optic cable
4 – Rollover cable
B.
1 – Ethernet straight-through cable
2 – Ethernet straight-through cable
3 – Serial cable
4 – Rollover cable
C.
1 – Ethernet rollover cable
2 – Ethernet crossover cable
3 – Serial cable
4 – Null-modem cable
D.
1 – Ethernet straight-through cable
2 – Ethernet Crossover cable
3 – Serial cable
4 – Rollover cable
E.
1 – Ethernet straight-through cable
2 – Ethernet Crossover cable
3 – Serial cable
4 – Ethernet Straight-through cable
Answer: B
Explanation:
When connecting a PC to a switch, a standard Ethernet straight through cable should be used. This same cable should also be used for switch to router connections. Generally speaking, crossover cables are only needed when connecting two like devices (PC-PC, switch-switch, router-router, etc). Routers connect to frame relay and other WAN networks using serial cables. Rollover cables are special cables used for connecting to the console ports of Cisco devices.
Question No : 7 – (Topic 1)  Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

SwitchA receives the frame with the addressing shown. According to the command output also shown in the exhibit, how will SwitchA handle this frame?
A. It will drop the frame.
B. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/6 only.
C. It will flood the frame out all ports.
D. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.
100-105 dumps Answer: B
Explanation:
Switches keep the learned MAC addresses in a table, so that when a frame comes in with a destination MAC address that the switch has already learned, it will forward it to that port only. If a frame comes in with a destination MAC that is not already in the MAC address table, then the frame will be flooded to all ports except for the one that it came in on. In this case, Switch A already knows that 00b0.d0da.cb56 resides on port fa0/6, so it will forward the from out that port.
Question No : 8 – (Topic 1) Which statements accurately describe CDP? (Choose three.)
A. CDP is an IEEE standard protocol.
B. CDP is a Cisco proprietary protocol.
C. CDP is a datalink layer protocol.
D. CDP is a network layer protocol.
E. CDP can discover directly connected neighboring Cisco devices.
F. CDP can discover Cisco devices that are not directly connected.
Answer: B,C,E
Explanation:
CDP (Cisco Discovery Protocol) is a proprietary protocol designed by Cisco to help administrators collect information about both locally attached and remote devices. By using CDP, you can gather hardware and protocol information about neighbor devices containing useful info for troubleshooting and documenting the network.
 Question No : 9 – (Topic 1)  Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A network device needs to be installed in the place of the icon labeled Network Device to accommodate a leased line attachment to the Internet. Which network device and interface configuration meets the minimum requirements for this installation?
A. a router with two Ethernet interfaces
B. a switch with two Ethernet interfaces
C. a router with one Ethernet and one serial interface
D. a switch with one Ethernet and one serial interface
E. a router with one Ethernet and one modem interface
100-105 pdf Answer: C
Explanation:
Only a router can terminate a leased line attachment access circuit, and only a router can connect two different IP networks. Here, we will need a router with two interfaces, one serial connection for the line attachment and one Ethernet interface to connect to the switch on the LAN
Question No : 10 – (Topic 1)  What must occur before a workstation can exchange HTTP packets with a web server?
A. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
B. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
C. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
 D. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
E. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
F. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
Answer: D
Explanation:
HTTP uses TCP port 80, and a TCP port 80 connection must be established for HTTP communication to occur.
Question No : 11 Make Successfully Resolve to server1.example.com where DNS Server is 192.168.0.254.
Answer: 1. vi /etc/resolv.conf
Question No : 12. Quota is implemented on /data but not working properly. Find out the Problem and implement the quota to user1 to have a soft limit 60 inodes (files) and hard limit of 70 inodes (files).
Answer and Explanation:
Quotas are used to limit a user’s or a group of users’ ability to consume disk space. This prevents a small group of users from monopolizing disk capacity and potentially interfering with other users or the entire system. Disk quotas are commonly used by ISPs, by Web hosting companies, on FTP sites, and on corporate file servers to ensure continued availability of their systems. Without quotas, one or more users can upload files on an FTP server to the point of filling a filesystem. Once the affected partition is full, other users are effectively denied upload access to the disk. This is also a reason to mount different filesystem directories on different partitions. For example, if you only had partitions for your root (/) directory and swap space, someone uploading to your computer could fill up all of the space in your root directory (/). Without at least a little free space in the root directory (/), your system could become unstable or even crash. You have two ways to set quotas for users. You can limit users by inodes or by kilobytesized disk blocks. Every Linux file requires an inode. Therefore, you can limit users by the number of files or by absolute space. You can set up different quotas for different filesystems. For example, you can set different quotas for users on the /home and /tmp directories if they are mounted on their own partitions. Limits on disk blocks restrict the amount of disk space available to a user on your system. Older versions of Red Hat Linux included LinuxConf, which included a graphical tool to configure quotas. As of this writing, Red Hat no longer has a graphical quota configuration tool. Today, you can configure quotas on RHEL only through the command line interface.
1. vi /etc/fstab /dev/hda11 /data ext3 defaults,usrquota 1 2
2. Either Reboot the System or remount the partition.
Mount -o remount /dev/hda11 /data
3. touch /data/aquota.user
4. quotacheck -ufm /data
5. quotaon -u /data
6. edquota -u user1 /data and Specified the Soft limit and hard limit on opened file.
To verify either quota is working or not: Soft limit specify the limit to generate warnings to users and hard limit can’t cross by the user. Use the quota command or repquota command to monitor the quota information.
Question No : 13 One Logical Volume named lv1 is created under vg0. The Initial Size of that Logical Volume is 100MB. Now you required the size 500MB. Make successfully the size of that Logical Volume 500M without losing any data. As well as size should be increased online.
Answer and Explanation:
The LVM system organizes hard disks into Logical Volume (LV) groups. Essentially, physical hard disk partitions (or possibly RAID arrays) are set up in a bunch of equalsized chunks known as Physical Extents (PE). As there are several other concepts associated with the LVM system, let’s start with some basic definitions: Physical Volume (PV) is the standard partition that you add to the LVM mix. Normally, a physical volume is a standard primary or logical partition. It can also be a RAID array. Physical Extent (PE) is a chunk of disk space. Every PV is divided into a number of equal sized PEs. Every PE in a LV group is the same size. Different LV groups can have different sized PEs. Logical Extent (LE) is also a chunk of disk space. Every LE is mapped to a specific PE. Logical Volume (LV) is composed of a group of LEs. You can mount a filesystem such as /home and /var on an LV. Volume Group (VG) is composed of a group of LVs. It is the organizational group for LVM. Most of the commands that you’ll use apply to a specific VG.
1. Verify the size of Logical Volume: lvdisplay /dev/vg0/lv1
2. Verify the Size on mounted directory: df -h or df -h mounted directory name
3. Use : lvextend -L+400M /dev/vg0/lv1
4. ext2online -d /dev/vg0/lv1 to bring extended size online.
5. Again Verify using lvdisplay and df -h command.
4. Create one partitions having size 100MB and mount it on /data.
100-105 exam Answer and Explanation:
1. Use fdisk /dev/hda To create new partition.
2. Type n For New partitions
3. It will ask for Logical or Primary Partitions. Press l for logical.
4. It will ask for the Starting Cylinder: Use the Default by pressing Enter Key.
5. Type the Size: +100M You can Specify either Last cylinder of Size here.
6. Press P to verify the partitions lists and remember the partitions name.
7. Press w to write on partitions table.
8. Either Reboot or use partprobe command.
9. Use mkfs -t ext3 /dev/hda? Or mke2fs -j /dev/hda? To create ext3 filesystem.
10. vi /etc/fstab Write: /dev/hda? /data ext3 defaults 1 2
11. Verify by mounting on current Sessions also: mount /dev/hda? /data
Question No : 14. You are new System Administrator and from now you are going to handle the system and your main task is Network monitoring, Backup and Restore. But you don’t know the root password. Change the root password to redhat and login in default Runlevel.
Answer and Explanation:
When you Boot the System, it starts on default Runlevel specified in /etc/inittab: Id:?:initdefault: When System Successfully boot, it will ask for username and password. But you don’t know the root’s password. To change the root password you need to boot the system into single user mode. You can pass the kernel arguments from the boot loader.
1. Restart the System.
2. You will get the boot loader GRUB screen.
3. Press a and type 1 or s for single mode ro root=LABEL=/ rhgb queit s
4. System will boot on Single User mode.
5. Use passwd command to change.
6. Press ctrl+d
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CCNP Collaboration

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QUESTION 20
If you have configured translation rules, what command do you use to verify digit manipulation?
A. execute translation-rule
B. show translation-rule
C. test translation-rule
D. debug translation-rule
E. set translation-rule
300-070 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
If the route patterns 5XXX, 51XX, 513X, and 5134 exist within a call route database, which pattern would be matched if the dialed number was 5124?
A. 5XXX
B. 51XX
C. 513X
D. 5134
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
Employees at a company must dial 9 first to reach an external number. Which route pattern is used to route the call if a user dials the toll-free number 1-866-5551212?
A. 9.18XX[2-9]XXXXXX
B. 9.18[0,5-8][0,5-8]XXXXXXX
C. 9.1XXXXXXXXXX
D. 9.1866XXXXXXX
E. 9.1866[2-9]XXXXXX
F. 9.1[2-9]XX[2-9]XXXXXX
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 23
Which DSCP classification is defined in RFC 2474?
A. DSCP CS3.
B. DSCP 0.
C. DSCP AF11.
D. DSCP CS6.
E. DSCP EF.
F. DSCP CS2.
G. DSCP CS1.
H. DSCP AF21.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
Hackers are sending calls through a gateway router that is running SIP. The engineer blocks all SIP messages to the router except from their SIP server, which has an IP address of 208.177.10.1. The customer also must connect via SIP to their Cisco Expressway server with an IP address of 10.1.10.110. Which series of commands secures the router from the hackers?
A. voice service voip voip security allow ipv4 208.177.10.1 255.255.255.255 ipv4 10.1.10.110 255.255.255.255
B. voice service voip ip address trusted list ipv4 208.177.10.1 255.255.255.255 ipv4 10.1.10.110 255.255.255.255
C. voice service voip allow-connections sip to sip ipv4 208.177.10.1 255.255.255.255 ipv4 10.1.10.110 255.255.255.255
D. voice service voip address-hiding ipv4 208.177.10.1 255.255.255.255 ipv4 10.1.10.110 255.255.255.255
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
On what equipment do you configure Layer 2 to Layer 3 QoS mapping?
A. switch
B. router
C. firewall
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
E. bridge
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
Which statement regarding Cisco IP voice media streaming application is correct?
A. It should be activated on the gateway in cluster that supports the TFTP service.
B. It should be activated on the gatekeeper in cluster that supports the TFTP service.
C. It should be activated on the node in cluster that does not support the TFTP service.
D. It should be activated on the node in cluster that supports the TFTP service.
300-070 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
In a multisite deployment, which two voice codecs are recommended to use between intrasite endpoints? (Choose two)
A. G.711
B. G.728
C. H.264
D. G.722
E. G.729
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 28
Which discard digits instruction removes the access code from a number before passing the number onto an adjacent system?
A. PreDot
B. PreAt
C. NoDigits
D. Trailing-#
300-070 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
What is the correct path selection for a call that is routed through a Cisco Unified Communications Manager system?
A. Devices -andgt; Route Group -andgt; Route List -andgt; Route Pattern
B. Route List -andgt; Route Pattern -andgt; Route Group -andgt; Devices
C. Route Pattern -andgt; Route List -andgt; Route Group -andgt; Devices
D. Route Group -andgt; Devices -andgt; Route Pattern -andgt; Route List
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
After you configure a dial plan to call a particular prefix in the PSTN, you notice that some outbound calls are taking longer than usual (15 seconds) before you hear a connecting tone. What is the likely cause of this issue?
A. The outbound gateway must be configured with the new prefix.
B. The endpoint is choosing the best codec to use.
C. The new prefix is overlapping other route patterns.
D. With some prefixes, this is normal behavior of the PSTN.
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31
Which are true about the Steelhead appliance backups taken and stored by the CMC appliance? (Select 3)
A. They are text file snapshots of the current running configuration taken at 3 a.m. (by default)
B. The CMC appliance creates hyperlinks of the backups for easy viewing with a Web browser
C. The configurations can be copied from the CMC appliance back to the Steelhead appliance via SCP
D. There is a limit of five configurations per Steelhead appliance that can be stored at any one time in a rolling queue
E. The Steelhead configuration files can be edited on the CMC appliance
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 32
What can be monitored via the CMC appliance? (Select 2)
A. Currently logged in users to Steelhead appliances or the CMC appliance
B. Command history per CMC appliance user
C. Rogue Steelhead appliances on the network
D. Current connections for an individual Steelhead appliance
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 33
The Home page in the Management Console for the CMC appliance can be configured to display what information?
A. Default login used by the CMC appliance for each appliance
B. Last hour of throughput across all managed appliances
C. Status of each individual alarm for each managed Steelhead appliance
D. Last 20 lines of a Steelhead appliance’s system log file
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
When using TACACS+ or RADIUS to authenticate management access to the CMC appliance, which of the following is true?
A. You are required to supply login credentials to every Steelhead appliance
B. You will automatically be logged into to every Steelhead appliance
C. All users will use the same user name and password
D. It is not possible to use TACACS+ or RADIUS
300-070 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
What Steelhead appliance models support the installation of Microsoft Windows Server 2008 R2 package
on the RSP? (Select 2)
A. 1050
B. 250
C. 550
D. 3020
Correct Answer: AD

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CCIE Wireless

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Exam Code: 400-351
Exam Name: CCIE Wireless Written Exam
Q&As: 261

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QUESTION NO: 77
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2005 as its application development platform. You have recently finished development of a Windows application using .NET Framework. Users report that the application is not running properly. When
the users try to complete a particular action, the following error message comes out: Unable to find assembly ‘myservices, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=29b5ad26c9de9b95’. You notice that the error occurs as soon as the application tries to call functionality in a serviced component that was registered by using the following command: regsvcs.exe myservices.dll You must make sure that the application can call the functionality in the serviced component with no exceptions being thrown. What will you do to accomplish this task?
A. Run the command line tool: regasm.exe myservices.dll.
B. Copy the serviced component assembly into the C:\Program Files\ComPlus Applications folder.
C. Run the command line tool: gacutil.exe /i myservices.dll.
D. Copy the serviced component assembly into the C:\WINDOWS\system32\Com folder.
400-351 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 78
Allen works as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET as its application development platform. He creates an application using .NET Framework. He wants to encrypt all his e-mails that he sends to anyone. Which of the following will he use to accomplish
the task?
A. PPP
B. FTP
C. PPTP
D. PGP
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 79
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company has several branches worldwide. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2005 as its application development platform. You have recently finished the development of an application using .NET Framework 2.0. The application
can be used only for cryptography. Therefore, you have implemented the application on a computer. What will you call the computer that implemented cryptography?
A. Cryptographic toolkit
B. Cryptosystem
C. Cryptographer
D. Cryptanalyst
400-351 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 80
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET as its application development platform. You create a class library using the .NET Framework. The  library will be used to open the NSCs of computers. Later, you will set up the class library to the
GAC and provide it Full Trust permission. You write down the following code segments for the socket connections: SocketPermission permission = new SocketPermission(PermissionState.Unrestricted); permission.Assert(); A number of the applications that use the class library may not have the necessary permissions to open the network socket connections. Therefore, you are required to withdraw the assertion. Which of the following code segments will you use to accomplish the task?
A. permission.PermitOnly();
B. CodeAccessPermission.RevertDeny();
C. permission.Deny();
D. CodeAccessPermission.RevertAssert();
E. permission.Demand();
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 81
You work as an Application Developer for ABC Inc. You are assigned with developing a Web site that will handle information related to monthly sales of the company. You wish to secure the Web site so that only employees of the Accounts department can view the Web pages. You need to
create roles for the employees of this department. The user account information will be stored in a SQL Server database named Database. You decide to do all this by using the Web Site Administration Tool. Which of the following types of security will you use to accomplish the task?
A. Forms-based authentication
B. Integrated Microsoft Windows authentication
C. Basic authentication
D. Digest authentication
400-351 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 82
You work as a Software Developer for ManSoft Inc. You use Microsoft Visual Studio to create a Web service named MyWebService. You create a SOAP message that is not secure in the Web service. You want to use the SendSecurityFilter class in the Web service to handle the transmission and securing of SOAP messages. Which of the following code segments will you use  to accomplish the task?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A.
public class MySendSecurityFilter : SendSecurityFilter
{
public MySendSecurityFilter(string service, Boolean client)
{ }
public override void SecureMessage(SoapEnvelope envelope, Security security)
{
// Implement validation here
}
}
B.
public class MySendSecurityFilter : SendSecurityFilter
{
public MySendSecurityFilter(string service, Boolean client)
{
base(service,client);
}
public override void SecureMessage(SoapEnvelope envelope, Security security)
{
// Implement validation here
}
}
C.
public class MySendSecurityFilter : SendSecurityFilter
{
public MySendSecurityFilter(string service, Boolean client) : base(service,client)
{ }
public override void SecureMessage(SoapEnvelope envelope, Security security)
{
// Implement validation here
}
}
D.
public class MySendSecurityFilter : SendSecurityFilter
{
public MySendSecurityFilter(string service, Boolean client) : base(service,client)
{ }
public void SecureMessage(SoapEnvelope envelope, Security security)
{
// Implement validation here
}
}
Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 83
You work as a Windows Application Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its application development platform. You create a Windows Forms application using .NET Framework 3.5. The application contains a data-bound control. You use the
LinqDataSource control to use LINQ in the ASP.NET application by setting properties in markup text. The LinqDataSource control uses LINQ to SQL to automatically generate the data commands. You are required to perform data operations by using the LinqDataSource control. What is the correct order in which data operations are applied?
A.
400-351 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 84
You work as a Software Developer for Hi-Tech Inc. You develop an application using Visual Studio.NET 2005. You create an unregistered COM DLL file named Com1.dll. You want to use this Com1.dll file in your application code. However, Com1.dll needs to be registered in the Windows
Registry before it is used by the application. Which of the following tools will you use to accomplish the task?
A. Wsdl.exe
B. Regsvr32.exe
C. Tlbimp.exe
D. Disco.exe
Answer: B

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CCNA Security

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Exam Code: 210-260 
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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QUESTION 80
Which two authentication types does OSPF support? (Choose two.)
A. plaintext
B. MD5
C. HMAC
D. AES 256
E. SHA-1
F. DES
210-260 exam Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 81
Which statement about personal firewalls is true?
A. They can protect a system by denying probing requests.
B. They are resilient against kernel attacks.
C. They can protect email messages and private documents in a similar way to a VPN.
D. They can protect the network against attacks.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 82
Which two authentication types does OSPF support? (Choose two.)
A. plaintext
B. MD5
C. HMAC
D. AES 256
E. SHA-1
F. DES
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 83
How does a device on a network using ISE receive its digital certificate during the new- device registration process?
A. ISE acts as a SCEP proxy to enable the device to receive a certificate from a central CA server.
B. ISE issues a certificate from its internal CA server.
C. ISE issues a pre-defined certificate from a local database.
D. The device requests a new certificate directly from a central CA.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 84
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
The Admin user is unable to enter configuration mode on a device with the given configuration. What change can you make to the configuration to correct the problem?
A. Remove the autocommand keyword and arguments from the username admin privilege line.
B. Change the Privilege exec level value to 15.
C. Remove the two Username Admin lines.
D. Remove the Privilege exec line.
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 83
How is peer affinity reset in the CLI for an Interceptor appliance cluster?
A. “peer affinity reset” on all Interceptors
B. “neighbor reset” on all Steelheads
C. “service restart” on all Interceptors
D. “neighbor reset” on all Interceptors
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 84
What is the primary purpose of enabling Multiple Interface Support on the Interceptor?
A. It allows for the ability to support multiple NICs on the Interceptor
B. It allows the Interceptor appliance to communicate with Steelhead appliances and other Interceptor appliances via more than one In-path interface
C. It allows the Interceptor appliance to communicate via Multicast to In-path interfaces on the Steelhead appliances
D. It allows the Interceptor appliance to be managed by In-path interfaces as well as the Primary interface
210-260 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 85
The primary purpose of setting proxies (found on Networking Proxies) on the Interceptor is to:
A. Allow for a Web or FTP proxy when specifying a URL on the Management Console or CLI
B. Allow for another Interceptor to redirect on behalf of the current Interceptor
C. Allow for Steelhead appliances to dynamically handle the load of another Steelhead appliance
D. Allow for two Interceptor appliances to act redundantly in a serial configuration
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 86
Refer to the exhibit.

210-260 dumps

What does the term resyncing mean?
A. All Interceptor appliances have been connected and the appliances are transferring connection information
B. All Interceptor appliances and all Steelhead appliances have been connected and the appliances are transferring connection information
C. The connection has been established and the Interceptor appliance is transferring its state information
D. The connection has been established and the devices are transferring their state information
210-260 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 87
Peer affinity is most closely related to:
A. Parallel Interceptor redirection based on Sport ID and client IP
B. Serial Interceptor redirection based on Sport ID to server
C. Segstore ID Steelhead mapping based on Sport ID of Steelhead appliances
D. The shipyard from which Riverbed is most likely to ship Interceptors
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 88
For a new connection, an Interceptor appliance has no peer affinity, which Steelhead appliance will the Interceptor appliance choose for the connection?
A. The Interceptor appliance selects the Steelhead appliance with the least connections
B. The Interceptor appliance selects the Steelhead that has the most connections
C. The Interceptor appliance selects the most loaded Steelhead appliance
D. The Interceptor appliance selects the Steelhead appliance with the most peer affinity
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 89
For a new connection, a Load Balancing rule matches but none of the target Steelhead appliances in the
rule are available. What will happen to the new connection?
A. The connection is passed through
B. The next rule in the list is examined
C. The Interceptor appliance triggers an alarm
D. The Interceptor appliance discontinues redirecting any new connections and places this rule in admissions control
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 90
By default, which Steelhead appliances are placed in an Interceptor appliance’s auto pool?
A. All Steelhead appliances in the network
B. Peer-neighbor Steelhead appliances as targets in one Load Balancing rule
C. Peer-neighbor Steelhead appliances not assigned as targets in any Load Balancing rule
D. Peer-neighbor Steelhead appliances assigned to all current Load Balancing rules
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 91
The purpose of Intelligent Forwarding is to:
A. Automatically detect Steelhead appliances in the network
B. Help prevent network loops
C. Assist in the creation of static routes on the Interceptor appliance
D. Preclude the need for proper routing
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 92
The Interceptor appliance will attempt to redirect a connection to a Steelhead appliance in the auto pool:
A. When no user defined Load Balancing rules matches AND peer neighbors are defined
B. When no user defined Load Balancing rules matches AND no peer neighbors are defined
C. When no peer Interceptor appliances are defined
D. When a user-defined Load Balancing rule matches AND a target Steelhead appliance is available
210-260 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 93
The Interceptor appliance cluster can support how many optimized connections?
A. 50,000
B. 100,000
C. 200,000
D. More than 200,000
Correct Answer: D
210-260 dumps

The Cisco 210–260 dumps IINS exam will test the knowledge and ability of the candidate to Compare and contrast symmetric and asymmetric encryption, Configure and verify secure access through https://www.pass4itsure.com/210-260.html dumps SNMP v3 using an ACL and Describe authentication and authorization using ACS and ISE.

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