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Cisco 350-801 CLCOR: Practice Test

QUESTION 1

A network administrator deleted a user from the LDAP directory of a company. The end-user shows an Inactive LOAP
Synchronized User in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which step is next to remove this user from Cisco
Unified Communications Manager?

A. Delete the user directly from Cisco Unified Communications Manager
B. Restart the Dirsync service after the user is deleted from the LDAP directory.
C. Execute a manual sync to refresh the local database and delete the end user.
D. Wait 24 hours for the garbage collector to remove the user.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2

Which description of the Mobile and Remote Access feature is true?

A. Collaboration Edge feature that enables remote individuals to perform international calls from Jabber with a VPN
connection.
B. Collaboration Edge feature that enables remote individuals to access all enterprise collaboration services using a PC
within the corporate environment.
C. Collaboration Edge feature that enables remote individuals to access enterprise collaboration services via Jabber
without the use of a VPN connection.
D. Collaboration Edge feature that enables remote individuals to access enterprise collaboration services via Jabber
with the use of a VPN connection.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3

Which action enables Cisco MRA?

A. Cisco UCC Express clients can obtain VPN connectivity to Cisco UCC Enterprise.
B. VPN connectivity can be established to Cisco UCM.
C. Clients such as Cisco Jabber can use call control on Cisco UCM.
D. Internal SIP clients registered to Cisco UCM can call external companies’

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4

Which access control group is required on an end-user to allow Jabber to do desk phone mode?

A. Allow Control of Device from CTI
B. Standard CTI Enabled
C. Standard CTI Allow Reception of SRTP Key Material
D. Standard CTI Secure Connection

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5

How is bandwidth allocated to traffic flows in a flow-based WFQ solution?

A. Each type of traffic flow has equal bandwidth.
B. Bandwidth is divided among traffic flows. Voice has priority.
C. Voice has priority and the other types of traffic share the remaining bandwidth
D. All the bandwidth is divided based on the QoS marking of the packets

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6

Which statement describes the Maximum Serving Count service parameter of the Cisco TFTP service on Cisco Unified
Communications Manager?

A. It specifies the maximum number of files in the TFTP server disk storage.
B. It specifies the maximum number of TFTP client requests to accept and to serve files at a given time.
C. It specifies the maximum file support by the Cisco TFTP service.
D. It specifies the maximum file counts, in the cache as well as in disk, that are supported by the Cisco TFTP service.
E. It specifies the maximum number of TFTP client requests to accept and to serve files in a 120-minute window.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7

What is a software-based media resource that is provided by the Cisco IP Voice Media Streaming Application?

A. video conference bridge
B. auto-attendant
C. transcoder
D. annunciator

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/collab09/clb09/media.html

QUESTION 8

Refer to the exhibit. This INVITE is sent to an endpoint that only supports G729. What must be done for this call to
succeed?

A. Nothing: both sides support G.729.
B. Add a transcoder that supports G711ulaw and G.729.
C. Add a media termination point that supports G.711ulaw and G.729.
D. Nothing: both sides support payload type 101.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9

A remote office has a less-than-optimal WAN connection and experiences packet loss, delay, and jitter. Which VoIP
the codec should be used in this situation?

A. G.711ulaw
B. iLBC
C. G.722.1
D. G.729A

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/collaboration-voice-and-video/summary-of-cucm-supported-codecs/tap/3162905

QUESTION 10

How can an administrator stop Cisco Unified Communications Manager from advertising the OPUS codec for recording
enabled devices?

A. Route recorded calls through Cisco Unified Border Element because it does not support OPUS.
B. Go to the phone\\’s configuration page and set “Advertise OPUS Codec” to be “false”.
C. Integrate the Cisco Unified CM with 3 recording solution that does not support OPUS.
D. In CUCM Service Parameters set “Opus Codec Enabled” to “Enabled for all Devices Except Recording-Enabled
Devices.”

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/unified-communications-managercallmanager/211297-Configure-Opus-Support-on-Cisco-Unified.pdf

QUESTION 11

Which configuration tells a switch part to send Cisco Discovery Protocol packets that configure an attached Cisco IP
phone to trust tagged traffic that is received from a device that is connected to the access port on the Cisco IP phone?

A. Router# configure terminal Router(config)# interface gigabitethernet 5/1 Router(config-if)# platform QoS trust extend
B. Router# configure terminal Router(config)# interface gigabitethernet 5/1 Router(config-if)# platform QoS trust extend cos 3
C. Router# configure terminal Router(config)# interface gigabitethernet 5/1 Router(config-if)# platform QoS trust extend cos 5
D. Router# configure terminal Router(config)# interface gigabitethernet 5/1 Router(config-if)# platform QoS extend trust

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12

Which protocol does Cisco Prime Collaboration Assurance use to poll the health status of different systems in the
Collaboration environment?

A. SIP
B. SNMP
C. SCCP
D. SMTP

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/cloud-systems-management/prime-collaboration/guidec07-736946.html#_Toc446633083

QUESTION 13

When setting a new primary DNS server in the Cisco UCM CLI what is required for the change to take effect?

A. restart of CallManager service
B. restart of DirSync service
C. restart of the network service
D. restart of TFTP service

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14

Which command in the MGCP gateway configuration defines the secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager
server?

A. mgcapp
B. ccm-manager fallback-mgcp
C. mgcp call-agent
D. ccm-manager redundant-host

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15

Which statement about Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco IM and Presence backups is true?

A. Backups should be scheduled during off-peak hours to avoid system performance issues.
B. Backups are saved as .tar files and encrypted using the web administrator account.
C. Backups are saved as unencrypted .tar files.
D. Backups are not needed for subscriber Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco IM and Presence
servers.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/11_5_1_SU1/Administration/cucm_b_ad
ministration-guide-1151su1/cucm_b_administration-guide-1151su1_chapter_01010.html#CUCM_TK_S7FC26D5_00

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QUESTION 1
When creating a subnet within a bridge domain, which configuration option is used to specify the network visibility of the
subnet?
A. limit IP learning to subnet
B. scope
C. gateway IP
D. subnet control
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/1-x/Operating_ACI/guide/b_Cisco_Operating_ACI/b_Cisco_Operating_ACI_chapter_0111.html


QUESTION 2
An engineer has set the VMM resolution immediacy to pre-provision in a Cisco ACI environment. No Cisco Discovery
Protocol neighborship has been formed between the hypervisors and the ACI fabric leaf nodes. How does this affect the
download policies to the leaf switches?
A. No policies are downloaded because LLDP is the only supported discovery protocol.
B. Policies are downloaded when the hypervisor host is connected to the VMM VDS.
C. Policies are downloaded to the ACI leaf switch regardless of Cisco Discovery Protocol neighborship.
D. No policies are downloaded because there is no discovery protocol neighborship.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
An engineer is implementing a connection that represents an external bridged network. Which two configurations are
used? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 2 remote fabric
B. Layer 2 outside
C. Layers 2 internal
D. Static path binding
E. VXLAN outside
Correct Answer: AB
 

 QUESTION 4
Which two protocols support accessing backup files on a remote location from the APIC? (Choose two.)
A. TFTP
B. FTP
C. SFTP
D. SMB
E. HTTPS
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/1-x/troubleshooting/b_APIC_Trouble
shooting/b_APIC_Troubleshooting_appendix_010011.html


QUESTION 5
On which two interface types should a user configure storm control to protect against broadcast traffic? (Choose two.)
A. APIC facing interfaces
B. port channel on a single leaf switch
C. all interfaces on the leaf switches in the fabric
D. endpoint-facing trunk interface
E. fabric uplink interfaces on the leaf switches
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/2-x/L2_config/b_Cisco_APIC_Layer_2_Configuration_Guide/b_Cisco_APIC_Layer_2_Configuration_Guide_chapter_01010.html


QUESTION 6
Which endpoint learning operation is completed on the egress leaf switch when traffic is received from an L3Out?
A. The source MAC and IP address of the traffic is learned as a local endpoint.
B. The source MAC address of the traffic is learned as a remote endpoint.
C. No source MAC or IP address of the traffic is learned as a remote endpoint.
D. The source IP address of the traffic is learned as a remote endpoint.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/application-centricinfrastructure/white-paper-c11-739989.html

QUESTION 7
An engineer configured Layer 2 extension from the ACI fabric and changed the Layer 2 unknown unicast policy from
Flood to Hardware Proxy. How does this change affect the flooding of the L2 unknown unicast traffic?
A. It is forwarded to one of the spines to perform as a spine proxy.
B. It is flooded within the whole fabric.
C. It is dropped by the leaf when the destination endpoint is not present in the endpoint table.
D. It is forwarded to one of the APICs to perform as a proxy.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/2-x/L2_config/b_Cisco_APIC_Layer_2_Configuration_Guide/b_Cisco_APIC_Layer_2_Configuration_Guide_chapter_010.html


QUESTION 8
A situation causes a fault to be raised on the APIC. The ACI administrator does not want that fault to be raised because
it is not directly relevant to the environment. Which action should the administrator take to prevent the fault from
appearing?
A. Under System -> Faults, right-click on the fault and select Acknowledge Fault so that acknowledged faults will
immediately disappear.
B. Create a stats threshold policy with both rising and falling thresholds defined so that the critical severity threshold
matches the squelched threshold.
C. Under System -> Faults, right-click on the fault and select Ignore Fault to create a fault severity assignment policy
that hides the fault.
D. Create a new global health score policy that ignores specific faults as identified by their unique fault code.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
When Cisco ACI connects to an outside Layers 2 network, where does the ACI fabric flood the STP BPDU frame?
A. within the bridge domain
B. within the APIC
C. within the access encap VLAN
D. between all the spine and leaf switches
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/application-centricinfrastructure/white-paper-c07-732033.html#_Toc395143571


QUESTION 10
What must be configured to allow SNMP traffic on the APIC controller?
A. out-of-band management interface
B. contract under tenant mgmt
C. SNMP relay policy
D. out-of-band bridge domain
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 11
An engineer is extending an EPG out of the ACI fabric using static path binding. Which statement about the endpoints is
true?
A. Endpoints must connect directly to the ACI leaf port.
B. External endpoints are in a different bridge domain than the endpoints in the fabric.
C. Endpoint learning encompasses the MAC address only.
D. External endpoints are in the same EPG as the directly attached endpoints.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which two dynamic routing protocols are supported when using Cisco ACI to connect to an external Layer 3 network?
(Choose two.)
A. iBGP
B. VXLAN
C. IS-IS
D. RIPv2
E. eBGP
Correct Answer: AE
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/1-x/ACI_Best_Practices/b_ACI_Best_Practices/b_ACI_Best_Practices_chapter_010010.html


QUESTION 13
When configuring Cisco ACI VMM domain integration with VMware vCenter, which object is created in vCenter?
A. datacenter
B. VMware vSphere Standard vSwitch
C. VMware vSphere Distributed Switch
D. cluster
Correct Answer: C

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  • 300-601 Implementing and Operating Cisco Data Center Core Technologies (DCCOR)
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  • 300-625 DCSAN Implementing Cisco Storage Area Networking (DCSAN)
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QUESTION 1
When a user dials a number with a phone that is registered to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager, what is the
default timeout before the number is sent?
A. 15 seconds
B. 5 seconds
C. 10 seconds
D. 3 seconds
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/voice-unified-communications/unified-communications-managercallmanager/13920-call-routing.html


QUESTION 2
An engineer deploys a Cisco Expressway edge server for a customer who wants to utilize all feature on the server.
Which feature does the engineer configure on the Expressway edge?
A. VTC bridge
B. H.323 endpoint registration
C. SIP gateway for PSTN providers
D. MRA
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
Which settings are needed to configure the SIP route pattern in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. pattern usage, IPv6 pattern, and SIP trunk/Route list
B. pattern usage, IPv4 pattern, IPv6 pattern, and description
C. pattern usage, IPv4 pattern, and SIP trunk/Route list
D. SIP trunk/Route list, description, and IPv4 pattern
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/10_0_1/ccmcfg/CUCM_BK_C95ABA82_00_admin-guide-100/CUCM_BK_C95ABA82_00_admin-guide-100_chapter_0100111.pdf

QUESTION 4
How can an engineer determine location-based CAC bandwidth requirements for Cisco Unified Communications
Manager?
A. Set the requirements in the service parameters.
B. Add the requirements for each audio and video codec and how many calls must be supported.
C. Execute the Resource Reservation Protocol to return location-based requirements.
D. Calculate the number of calls against the license for Cisco Unified Border Element to determine calls per location.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
Which version is used to provide encryption for SNMP management traffic in collaboration deployments?
A. SNMPv1
B. SNMPv3
C. SNMPv2
D. SNMPv2c
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 6
Which statement describes the Maximum Serving Count service parameter of the Cisco TFTP service on Cisco Unified
Communications Manager?
A. It specifies the maximum number of files in the TFTP server disk storage.
B. It specifies the maximum number of TFTP client requests to accept and to serve files at a given time.
C. It specifies the maximum file support by the Cisco TFTP service.
D. It specifies the maximum file counts, in the cache as well as in disk, that are supported by the Cisco TFTP service.
E. It specifies the maximum number of TFTP client requests to accept and to serve files in a 120-minute window.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
According to the QoS Baseline Model, drag and drop the applications from the left onto the correct Per-Hop Behavior
values on the right.
Select and Place:

Testkingone 350-801 exam questions-q7

QUESTION 8
Due to provider requirements, outgoing calls from the Enterprise to the PSTN must start with channel 1. Which ISDN
command changes the channel selection and IOS to meet this requirement?
A. isdn bchan-number-order decending
B. isdn bchan-number-order ascending
C. isdn protocol-emulate network
D. isdn incoming-voice voice
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
Which packet delay is the maximum supported between Cisco Unified Communications Manager nodes for clustering
over WAN deployments?
A. 150 ms round tip
B. 510 ms round trip
C. 40 ms round trip
D. 80 ms round trip
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/collab11/collab11/callpros.html

QUESTION 10

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Refer to the exhibit. Given this “debug isdn q921” output, what is the problem with the PRI?
A. Layer 1 is down on the controller.
B. PRI does not have an IP address configured on the interface.
C. Nothing, the PRI is sending keepalives.
D. Layer 2 is down on the controller.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
A Cisco Unity Connection administrator receives a name change request from a voice-mail user, whose Cisco Unity
The connection user account was imported from Cisco Unified Communications Manager. What should the administrator do
to execute this change?
A. Change the user data in the Cisco Unity Connection administration page, then use the Synch User page in Cisco
Unity Connection administration to push the change to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B. Change the user data in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager administration page, then use the Synch User
page in Cisco Unity Connection administration to pull the changes from Cisco Unified CM.
C. Change the user data in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager administration page, then use the Synch User
page in the Cisco Unified CM administration to push the change to Cisco Unity Connection.
D. Change the user profile from Imported to Local on Cisco Unity Connection Administration, then edit the data locally
on Cisco Unity Connection.
E. Change the user data in the Cisco Unity Connection and Cisco Unified Communications Manager separately.
Correct Answer: B
As we can see user are getting synch from the call manager so we first have to change the details of the user on-call manager
so that the user will synch the changes from the call manager.


QUESTION 12
A Cisco collaboration engineer is troubleshooting unexpected SIP call disconnect. Which three responses
corresponding to the 5xx range? (Choose Three)
A. Forbidden
B. Unauthorized
C. Request timeout
D. Service unavailable
E. Bad gateway
F. Internal server error
Correct Answer: DEF

QUESTION 13
Which configuration tells a switch part to send Cisco Discovery Protocol packets that configure an attached Cisco IP
phone to trust tagged traffic that is received from a device that is connected to the access port on the Cisco IP phone?
A. Router# configure terminal Router(config)# interface gigabitethernet 5/1 Router(config-if)# platform qos trust extend
B. Router# configure terminal Router(config)# interface gigabitethernet 5/1 Router(config-if)# platform qos trust extend
cos 3
C. Router# configure terminal Router(config)# interface gigabitethernet 5/1 Router(config-if)# platform qos trust extend
cos 5
D. Router# configure terminal Router(config)# interface gigabitethernet 5/1 Router(config-if)# platform qos extend trust
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
The business proposal addresses business impact in several ways. Which benefit can be used in a business proposal?
A. new customer segments
B. risk free productivity
C. lower spending trend
D. technology upgrades
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
Which two statements about a business roadmap are true? (Choose two.)
A. It provides a high-level, multiyear strategic plan for transforming the business.
B. It identifies the relationship between the business stakeholders and business drivers.
C. It is based on the business model canvas template.
D. It includes a business strategy value map and a customer journey map.
E. It maps all key solutions that are linked to business goals and prioritizes the execution of each solution.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 3
Which of these can be mapped after business solutions and business capabilities are aligned?
A. target state architecture
B. business roadmaps
C. business outcomes
D. current state architecture
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You are creating a target state business model. Which statement about linkages between building blocks in the
business model canvas is true?
A. Building blocks on the bottom of the business model canvas affect other blocks on the bottom only
B. Building blocks on the right side of the business model canvas affect other building blocks on the right side only.
C. Building blocks in the business model canvas affect other building blocks in any permutation.
D. The relationships between building blocks on the business model canvas are fixed.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 5
You are constructing the key resources view of the business model canvas. Which two business perspectives are
supported? (Choose two.)
A. key activities
B. cost structure
C. customer relationships
D. distribution channels
E. customer segments
Correct Answer: AE
Reference: https://www.cleverism.com/key-resources-building-block-in-business-model-canvas/


QUESTION 6
In which quadrant of a stakeholder analysis grid do you place a customer enterprise architect who is not responsible for
business solution selection but is responsible for business solution implementation?
A. internal influencer
B. key player
C. show consideration
D. least important
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which architecture considers cost and lifecycle management?
A. technology architecture
B. information architecture
C. business architecture
D. implementation architecture
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 8
Which two items must you consider when you develop an Industry Business capability target state? (Choose two.)
A. surgical service business priority in a hospital
B. SWOT analysis of a retail wayfinding service from a vendor
C. current online banking service capability
D. compelling business driver to automate a manufacturing warehouse
E. primary activities needed to deliver a teaching solution to a university
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 9
You are contacting a stakeholder who has a high level of power but has little interest or support for the project. Which
type of engagement is recommended?
A. Persuade the stakeholder.
B. Show consideration to the stakeholder.
C. Engage and consult the stakeholder regularly.
D. Meet the needs of the stakeholder.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 10
Which two business model canvas building blocks are relevant to the VPC? (Choose two.)
A. cost structure
B. value proposition
C. resources
D. customer segment
E. revenue streams
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 11
Which two business activities in Porter\\’s business value chain are primary activities instead of support activities?
(Choose two.)
A. human resource management
B. inbound logistics
C. technological development
D. marketing and sales
E. firm infrastructure
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: https://www.mindtools.com/pages/article/newSTR_66.html

QUESTION 12
You are in the Research and Analyze phase of a business architecture engagement with a public sector customer. You
have access to the corporate organization chart and are identifying the relevant customer audience. Which tool helps
when you consider power, influence, fears, support, and interest factors?
A. RACI chart
B. stakeholder analysis grid
C. seven elements framework
D. business scenario
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 13
You are working with the Director of Operations at BigCity, USA, to create a business proposal. Public transportation is
the largest budget item for the city. To reduce the environmental impact of vehicle traffic, BigCity wants to increase
ridership on city buses and light rail transit by 10 percent and reduce the cost of services by 5 percent. Also, due to
reports of theft on the light rail transit system, the city council want to see a plan for improving rider safely.
Which two business priorities must you include in the business roadmap for the business proposal? (Choose two.)
A. Increase ridership by 10 percent.
B. Promote environment consciousness
C. Focus on rider experience.
D. Reduce the cost of services by 5 percent.
E. Provide free Wi-Fi on the buses.
Correct Answer: BC

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Cisco Collaboration Servers and Appliances Role 500-325 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which purpose of the Call Service Connect of Cisco Spark Hybrid is true?
A. It makes Cisco Spark aware of calls placed between VCS devices
B. It integrates Cisco Spark with Cisco UCM to connect calls
C. It integrates Cisco Spark with Cisco VCS to connect calls
D. It makes Cisco Spark aware of calls placed between UCM, or between HCS, devices
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collaboration/webex-hybrid-services/call-service.html

 

QUESTION 2
Which appliance comes with Cisco UC Virtualization Hypervisor Plus software?
A. BE4000
B. BE6000
C. 3rd-party Specs-based server
D. BE7000
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/BE6000/InstallationGuide/11_6/cucm_b_install-guide-cbe-6000-hm/cucm_b_install-guide-cbe-6000-hm_chapter_010.html#CUCM_TK_AD1A939F_00

 

QUESTION 3
Which software is an eDelivery, field-uploaded license?
A. Cisco TelePresence Virtualization
B. Cisco UC Virtualization Hypervisor Plus
C. Cisco UC Virtualization Foundation
D. VMware vSphere ESXi
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
In the KVM console, which result occurs if the first default is used and network does not have IPv6 configured?
A. KVM switches to IPv4.
B. KVM prompts the admin to enable IPv6.
C. KVM moves to the next default option listed.
D. KVM fails to launch.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
Which type of processing do DSS applications use to perform operations?
A. Parallel
B. Batch
C. Multiplex
D. Linear
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/servers-unified-computing/ucs-b-series-blade-servers/whitepaper_c11-727827.pdf

 

QUESTION 6
Which features are offered by the Cisco BE4000 appliance?
A. premises-based management
B. cloud-hosted management
C. cloud-hosted server
D. 400 premises-based phones
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/unified-communications/business-edition-4000/datasheet-c78-738497.html

 

QUESTION 7
When deploying an OVA Template, which option is used to allocate storage on demand as data is written to disk?
A. Thick Provisioned (Lazy Zeroed) format
B. Thin Provisioned format
C. Medium Provisioned format
D. Thick Provisioned (Eager Zeroed) format
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-4-esx-vcenter/index.jsp?topic=/com.vmware.vsphere.vmadmin.doc_41/vsp_vm_guide/working_with_ovf_templates/t_import_a_virtual_appliance.html

 

QUESTION 8
Which software changes can be required by Cisco TAC to enable third-party Specs-based solution troubleshooting?
A. Consolidate distributed UC applications.
B. Move all critical VMs to the same host server.
C. Consolidate more VMs onto the same server.
D. Temporarily power-down noncritical VMs.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/voice-unified-communications/unified-communications-system/115955-uc-specs-tshoot-00.pdf (p.6)

 

QUESTION 9
How many collaboration applications does the Cisco BE7000H appliance support?
A. eight or ten
B. nine fixed
C. five to ten
D. four or six
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/unified-communications/business-edition-7000/data-sheet-c78-730649.html

 

QUESTION 10
What is the minimum number of blades you must purchase with the CMS2000 server?
A. 10
B. 4
C. 1
D. 8
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/conferencing/ciscoMeetingServer/Installation/Cisco-Meeting-Server-2000-Installation-Guide.pdf

 

QUESTION 11
Which option is the maximum capacity of a Cisco BE7000 appliance deployment?
A. 10000
B. 5000
C. 1000
D. no enforced limit
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/unified-communications/business-edition-7000/data-sheet-c78-730649.html

 

QUESTION 12
Which guideline for SAN and NAS storage arrays is true?
A. Design your deployment in accordance with the Cisco UCS high availability guideline.
B. Adapters for storage access do not follow hardware rules.
C. Ethernet ports for LAN access and Ethernet ports for storage may only be separate.
D. Cisco UC apps use a 24 kilobyte block size to determine bandwidth needs.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/uc_system/virtualization/virtualization-collaboration-storage-design-requirements.html

 

QUESTION 13
Which option do you use to select menu items in the Console window?
A. stylus
B. keyboard keys
C. voice command
D. mouse pointer
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Which network device creates and sends the initial packet of a session?
A. source
B. origination
C. destination
D. network
210-255 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
In the context of incident handling phases, which two activities fall under scoping? (Choose two.)
A. determining the number of attackers that are associated with a security incident
B. ascertaining the number and types of vulnerabilities on your network
C. identifying the extent that a security incident is impacting protected resources on the network
D. determining what and how much data may have been affected
E. identifying the attackers that are associated with a security incident
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 3
Which string matches the regular expression r(ege)+x?
A. rx
B. regeegex
C. r(ege)x
D. rege+x
210-255 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which source provides reports of vulnerabilities in software and hardware to a Security Operations Center?
A. Analysis Center
B. National CSIRT
C. Internal CSIRT
D. Physical Security
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
From a security perspective, why is it important to employ a clock synchronization protocol on a network?
A. so that everyone knows the local time
B. to ensure employees adhere to work schedule
C. to construct an accurate timeline of events when responding to an incident
D. to guarantee that updates are pushed out according to schedule
210-255 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which element is part of an incident response plan?
A. organizational approach to incident response
B. organizational approach to security
C. disaster recovery
D. backups
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What mechanism does the Linux operating system provide to control access to files?
A. privileges required
B. user interaction
C. file permissions
D. access complexity
210-255 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
210-255
You notice that the email volume history has been abnormally high.
Which potential result is true?
A. Email sent from your domain might be filtered by the recipient.
B. Messages sent to your domain may be queued up until traffic dies down.
C. Several hosts in your network may be compromised.
D. Packets may be dropped due to network congestion.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
210-255 dumps
Which type of log is this an example of?
A. IDS log
B. proxy log
C. NetFlow log
D. syslog
210-255 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
210-255 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from this ping result?
A. The public IP address of cisco.com is 2001:420:1101:1::a.
B. The Cisco.com website is down.
C. The Cisco.com website is responding with an internal IP.
D. The public IP address of cisco.com is an IPv4 address.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which option has a drastic impact on network traffic because it can cause legitimate traffic to be blocked?
A. true positive
B. true negative
C. false positive
D. false negative
210-255 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You have run a suspicious file in a sandbox analysis tool to see what the file does. The analysis report shows that outbound callouts were made post infection. Which two pieces of information from the analysis report are needed or required to investigate the callouts? (Choose two.)
A. file size
B. domain names
C. dropped files
D. signatures
E. host IP addresses
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 13
Which goal of data normalization is true?
A. Reduce data redundancy.
B. Increase data redundancy.
C. Reduce data availability.
D. Increase data availability
210-255 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which CVSSv3 metric value increases when the attacker is able to modify all files protected by the vulnerable component?
A. confidentiality
B. integrity
C. availability
D. complexity
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
210-255 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of log is this an example of?
A. syslog
B. NetFlow log
C. proxy log
D. IDS log
210-255 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which type of analysis allows you to see how likely an exploit could affect your network?
A. descriptive
B. casual
C. probabilistic
D. inferential
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which type of analysis assigns values to scenarios to see what the outcome might be in each scenario?
A. deterministic
B. exploratory
C. probabilistic
D. descriptive
210-255 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which description of a retrospective maKvare detection is true?
A. You use Wireshark to identify the malware source.
B. You use historical information from one or more sources to identify the affected host or file.
C. You use information from a network analyzer to identify the malware source.
D. You use Wireshark to identify the affected host or file.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which two components are included in a 5-tuple? (Choose two.)
A. port number
B. destination IP address
C. data packet
D. user name
E. host logs
210-255 dumps Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 20
Which CVSSv3 metric value increases when attacks consume network bandwidth, processor cycles, or disk space?
A. confidentiality
B. integrity
C. availability
D. complexity
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
You see confidential data being exfiltrated to an IP address that is attributed to a known Advanced Persistent Threat group. Assume that this is part of a real attach and not a network misconfiguration. Which category does this event fall under as defined in the Diamond Model of Intrusion?
A. reconnaissance
B. weaponization
C. delivery
D. action on objectives
210-255 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which regular expression matches “color” and “colour”?
A. col[0-9]+our
B. colo?ur
C. colou?r
D. ]a-z]{7}
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
Which feature is used to find possible vulnerable services running on a server?
A. CPU utilization
B. security policy
C. temporary internet files
D. listening ports
210-255 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Which element is included in an incident response plan?
A. organization mission
B. junior analyst approval
C. day-to-day firefighting
D. siloed approach to communications
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Drag and drop the type of evidence from the left onto the correct descnption(s) of that evidence on the right.
Select and Place:
210-255 dumps
210-255 exam Correct Answer:

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the element name from the left onto the correct piece of the NetFlow v5 record from a security event on the right.

Select and Place:

210-255 dumps Correct Answer:

QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the element name from the left onto the correct piece of the PCAP file on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 28
Drag and drop the elements of incident handling from the left into the correct order on the right.
Select and Place:
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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-135 Dumps Exam Q&As(46-51)

QUESTION 46
A construction company is about to start a new project. It requires hiring a project manager for this project. Which of the following are the most important skills that a person must have to be selected as a project manager?
A. Problem solving
B. Team building and human resources
C. Leading
D. Communication
E. Negotiation and influential
300-135 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A good project manager must have all of the above mentioned skills. Out of these, the communication skills are the most important skills for a project manager. Communications skills are part of general management skills and are used to exchange information. Communication has many dimensions: Written and oral, listening, and speaking Internal (within the project) and external (customer, the media, the public) Formal (reports, briefings) and informal (memos, ad hoc conversations) Vertical (up and down the organization) and horizontal (with peers) Communication is the most important skill that a project manager must posses. It is the single most important characteristics of a top-class project manager. Project managers must communicate well in order to integrate and maximize the performance of team members. Oral and written communications are the backbone of every successful project. During different phases of a project, a project manager requires to communicate through different manners (for example, documentation, meeting updates, etc.) and he must ensure that the information communicated is explicit, clear, and complete. Answer options E, C, A, and B are incorrect. All these mentioned skills make a person a good project manager. Communication skills top the list. What are organizational skills? Organizational skills are part of management skills to organize various aspects of a project in order to complete it successfully. A good project manager uses these skills to successfully organize his meetings, as well as to keep documentations, quotes, contracts, etc., which can be fetched at any given moment. Organizational skills also include planning and time management skills. What are budgeting skills? Budgeting skills include the knowledge of finance and accounting principles. A project manager must possess these skills in order to perform cost estimates for project budgeting. Reading and understanding quotes, preparing purchase orders, and reconciling purchase invoices are all part of budgeting skills. In order to make the budget of a project, the project manager must have excellent budgeting skills. What are problem solving skills? Problem solving skills include the ability to define and analyze problems, and to take decisions in order to solve the problems by implementing those decisions. Every project manager must possess strong problem solving skills. Problem solving is a two-fold process: Defining the problem Taking a decision and then
implementing it A project manager is responsible for determining the best course of action to take in order to resolve the problem. What are negotiating and influencing skills? Negotiating skills includes demanding and convincing others for the rightful thing or act. A project manager needs this skill to negotiate on projects in almost every area such as scope definitions, budgets, contracts, resource assignments, schedules, etc. Influencing skills include the convincing power of a person. It is an ability to change minds and the course of events. A good project manager requires these skills to utilize them in all areas of project management.

QUESTION 47
Which of the following individuals has a management role in a core business area, such as research and development, design, manufacturing, provisioning, testing, or maintenance?
A. Functional manager
B. Operations manager
C. Project manager
D. Seller
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The role of operations manager is to perform various management roles in a core business area, such as research and development, design, manufacturing, provisioning, testing, or maintenance. The operations manager directly deals with constructing and maintaining the saleable products or services of the enterprise. Answer option C is incorrect. A project manager is an expert in the field of project management. He is responsible for the entire project from inception to completion. The project manager leads the team and helps negotiate the multiple relationships within any project whether with clients, team members, firm principals or any variety of partners and functions as the hub of a project. Answer option A is incorrect. The
role of a functional manager is to perform various management roles within an administrative or functional area of the business, such as human resources, finance, accounting, or procurement. He is assigned his own permanent staff to carry out the ongoing work. He should have a clear directive to manage all tasks within his functional area of responsibility. Answer option D is incorrect. Seller is also known as a vendor, supplier or contractor. They are external company’s elements that enter into a contractual agreement to provide components or services necessary for the project.

QUESTION 48
John is the project manager for his organization. He has created a status dashboard for his stakeholders. What is a status dashboard?
A. It is a report that details the current status of risks and issues.
B. It is a software application that allows stakeholders to view the project manager’s performance.
C. It is a web-based tool to inspect the project deliverables for performance.
D. It is a report that reflects the overall performance of scope, schedule, quality, cost, or other project performance metrics.
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Of all the choices, the best explanation is that a dashboard is a report for quick review of the project’s performance metrics. While there are some software solutions, they still focus on the key performance criteria of the project. Answer option C is incorrect. This answer defines the definition of quality control, not the dashboard’s review of project performance. Answer option B is incorrect. Dashboards focus on the performance of the project’s key performance factors, not the project manager. Answer option A is incorrect. A status report could include the details of the project’s risks and issues, but usually not the dashboard.

QUESTION 49
You have been hired as a project manager for Tech Perfect Inc. You are studying the documentation of planning of a project. The documentation states that there are twenty-five stakeholders with the project. What will be the number of communication channels for the project?
A. 300
B. 50
C. 600
D. 25
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
According to the question, the project has twenty-five stakeholders. Communication channels are paths of communication with stakeholders in a project. The number of communication channels shows the complexity of a project’s communication and can be derived through the formula shown below: Total Number of Communication Channels = n (n-1)/2 where, n is the number of stakeholders. Hence, a project
  having five stakeholders will have ten communication channels. Putting the value of the number of stake holder in the formula will provide the number of communication channels: Number of communication channel = (n (n-1)) / 2 = (25 (25-1)) / 2 = (25 x 24) / 2 = 600 / 2 = 300 Who are project stakeholders?
Project stakeholders are those entities within or without an organization, which: Sponsor a project or, Have an interest or a gain upon a successful completion of a project. Examples of project stakeholders include the customer, the user group, the project manager, the development team, the testers, etc. Stakeholders are anyone who has an interest in the project. Project stakeholders are individuals and organizations that are actively involved in the project, or whose interests may be affected as a result of project execution or project completion. They may also exert influence over the project’s objectives and outcomes. The project management team must identify the stakeholders, determine their requirements and expectations, and, to the extent possible, manage their influence in relation to the requirements to ensure a successful project.

QUESTION 50
You are the project manager of the GHY Project. This project is scheduled to last for one year and has a BAC of $4,500,000. You are currently 45 percent complete with this project, though you are supposed to be at your second milestone which accounts for half of the project completion. There have been some errors in the project, which has caused you to spend $2,073,654. What is this project’s schedule variance?
A. -$48,654
B. 13 percent
C. -$225,000
D. 0.98
300-135 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
he schedule variance can be found by subtracting the planned value form the earned value. In this instance, it is $2,025,000 minus $2,250,000. SV = 2,025,000 – 2,250,000 = -225,000 Schedule variance (SV) is a measure of schedule performance on a project. The variance notifies that the schedule is ahead or behind what was planned for this period in time. The schedule variance is calculated based on the following formula: SV = Earned Value (EV) – Planned Value (PV) If the resulting schedule is negative, it indicates that the project is behind schedule. A value greater than 0 shows that the project is ahead of the planned schedule. A value of 0 indicates that the project is right on target. Answer option A is incorrect.
This is the cost variance for the project. Answer option B is incorrect. 13 percent is not a valid answer. Answer option D is incorrect. This is not a valid variance for this question; variances are typically negative numbers.

QUESTION 51
The figure given below demonstrates the communication model for a project. What role does the component E play in the communications model?
A. Static
B. Deterrent
C. Noise
D. Barrier
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Noise is anything that disrupts the communication method such as static on the telephone line, distracting conversations, or misunderstandings.
Answer option A is incorrect. Static is an example of noise, but it is not part of the communication model.
Answer option D is incorrect. A barrier to communication is when communication cannot happen under the present conditions.
Answer option B is incorrect. A deterrent is not a valid part of the communication model.

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 210-451 Dumps Exam Q&As(6-46)

QUESTION 6
The Cisco InterCloud Fabric Director provides what functionality?
A. It is the single point of management and consumption for hybrid Cloud solutions.
B. It is the single point of management and consumption for public Cloud solutions.
C. It is the single point of management and consumption for private Cloud solutions.
D. It is a plugin of a Virtual Machine Manager to provide management and configuration for hybrid Cloud solutions.
210-451 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which two options are benefits of the Cisco InterCloud Solution? (Choose two.)
A. enforces standardization on a single hypervisor product
B. provides self service for hybrid resources
C. management of heterogeneous SAN solutions
D. secure connectivity between public and private Clouds
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
Which two options are characteristics of NAS? (Choose two.)
A. NAS provides block-based storage only.
B. NAS provides storage and filesystems.
C. NAS requires no authentication.
D. SMB is a protocol that can be used for NAS.

210-451 dumps Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
Which option is one essential characteristic of Cloud computing?
A. It must use virtualization.
B. It must provide load balancing services.
C. It must provide on-demand self service.
D. It must run on open source software.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which description of RAID6 is true?
A. block-level striping of data with double distributed parity
B. drive-level striping of data with double distributed parity
C. block-level striping of data with single distributed parity
D. block-level mirroring of data with double distributed parity
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Where is the Hypervisor installed?
A. Host operating system
B. Guest operating system
C. Control node
D. Computer node
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which API structure does Cisco UCS Manager support?
A. JSON
B. XML
C. RUBY
D. PERL
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which of the following situation would not impair audit objectivity?
A. An auditor is assigned to audit a business function that the auditor was responsible for nine months ago
B. An individual temporarily assigned to the internal audit activity because of the individual’sexpert knowledge in a particular business function assigned to audit an activity that theindividual was responsible for just prior to transferring to the internal audit activity
C. An auditor is assigned to perform a post-implementation review on a system for which the auditor participated in the design process
D. An auditor is assigned to perform a post-implementation review on a system for which the auditor performed a procedure review and made control recommendations prior to the system’s implementation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Internal auditing:
A. Is an independent, objective assurance and consulting activity designed to add value and improve anorganization’s operations
B. Is an independent, performance measurement and consulting activity designed to addValue and improve an organization’s operations
C. Helps an organization accomplish objectives by bringing a systematic, disciplinedApproach to evaluate but rarely improve the effectiveness of risk management, control and governance
D. Helps an organization accomplish objectives by bringing a targeted, disciplined approach to evaluate but rarely improve the effectiveness of risk management, control and governance
210-451 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
IIA’s code of ethics applies to __________ that provide internal auditing services:
A. Individuals
B. Entities
C. Individuals and entities
D. Individuals, entities and indirect authorities
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Internal auditors are expected to uphold the following principles:
A. Integrity, objectivity, competency
B. Integrity, objectivity, confidentiality, and competency
C. Integrity, objectivity, awareness and competency
D. Integrity, objectivity, entirety
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
“Internal auditors make a balanced assessment of all the relevant circumstances and are not unduly influenced by their own interests or by others in forming judgments.” This statement best explains one of the following principles:
A. Competency
B. Confidentiality

C. Objectivity
D. Integrity
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Internal auditors, engaging in activities that are illegal and discreditable to the profession of internal auditing or the organization, violate which of the following principles:
A. Objectivity
B. Awareness
C. Integrity
D. Competence
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which of the following statements is NOT related to competency principle of internal auditing? Internal auditors:
A. Shall continually improve their proficiency and effectiveness and quality of their services
B. Shall perform internal auditing services in accordance with the standards for the professional practice of internal auditing
C. Shall engage only in those services for which they have the necessary knowledge, skills and experience
D. Shall disclose all material facts known to them that, if not disclosed, may distort the reporting of activities under review
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
While performing consulting services internal auditors should specifically maintain:
A. Proficiency level
B. Objectivity
C. Competence
D. Confidentiality
210-451 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
All these statements elaborate purpose of standards EXCEPT:
A. Foster improved organizational processes and operations
B. Establish the basis for the evaluation of internal audit performance
C. Subvert the framework for performing and promoting broad range of value-added internal audit activities.
D. Delineate basic principles that represent the practice of internal auditing as it should be
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Nature of internal audit activities and quality criteria against which the performance of these services can be evaluated is best portrayed by:
A. Performance Standards
B. Attribute Standards
C. Implementation Standards

D. Evaluation Standards
210-451 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
There are multiple sets of attribute and performance standards:
A. False
B. True
C. True- In specific conditions
D. False- In specific conditions
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
All of the following phrases are used to express the auditor’s opinion EXCEPT:
A. Give a true and fair view
B. Present fairly, in all material respects
C. Timely and consistent opinion
D. Comprehensible and realistic view
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
The auditor should plan an audit with an attitude of:
A. Professional competence
B. Professional skepticism
C. Subject awareness
D. Opinion sharing
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
Which of the following is a limitation in an audit that affects auditors’ ability to detect material misstatements?
A. Scope of an audit
B. The use of testing
C. Over- generalization
D. Unidentifiable risks
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Reasonable assurance relates to the:
A. Audit planning process
B. Scope of the internal audit
C. End of the audit process
D. Whole audit process
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
The responsibility for preparing and presenting the audited financial statements is that of:
A. Internal auditor
B. Engagement client/ Management of the entity
C. Process owner
D. Auditing Agency
210-451 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
All these are disparities in public and private sector audits EXCEPT:
A. Objective and scope
B. Specific requirements of relevant regulation, ordinances or ministerial directives
C. Specific and broad range mandate in public sector
D. Reasonable assurance
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
Which one of the following is an internal control component?
A. Compliance control
B. Control activities
C. Financial Reporting Controls
D. Communication channels and network
210-451 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
Management must ___________ assess business risk and develop clearly defined control objectives:
A. Continually
B. Annually
C. Periodically
D. Weekly
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
Internal audit routinely reviews compliance risk and also should be reviewing business risk. The efforts to control both risk types will purely enhance:
A. The short-term profitability and viability of an organization
B. The long-term profitability and viability of an organization
C. Both short-term and long-term profitability and viability of an organization
D. None of these
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
Following statements define risk EXCEPT:
A. Organization has knowledge of facts constituting a dangerous condition
B. Organization voluntarily exposes itself to the danger
C. The element of assurance in an undertaking
D. Measured in terms of impact and likelihood
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 34
Strategic planning is the process of taking a long-term view of the organization, the longer the view, the greater the uncertainty of risks and opportunities. Such reservations can better be handled by:
A. Timely decisions
B. Flexible/ Adaptive plans and processes
C. Periodic risk assessments
D. Focusing on current period organizational activity
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
High-risk scores are those with an average of scores:
A. 3.75 or more
B. 3.25 or more
C. 4.25 or more
D. 4.00 or more
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
Low-risk scores are those with an average of scores:
A. 2.25 or less
B. 2.75 or less
C. 2.00 or less
D. 3.25 or less
210-451 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
Risks inherent in the management process are known as:
A. Residual risks
B. Long-term risks
C. Control risks
D. Strategic risks
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 38
Both residual and control risk need to be_______________ dealt with in project management.
A. Timely
B. Implicitly
C. Professionally
D. Explicitly
210-451 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 39
“Ongoing monitoring activities are conducted to periodically reassess risk and the effectiveness of control
risk,” is an objective of:
A. Risk Identification

B. Risk Measurement
C. Risk Management Process
D. Risk Prioritization
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 40
Faulty human judgments, misunderstanding of instructions, errors, management override, and collusion
and cost/benefit considerations are the limitations of:
A. Reasonable Assurance
B. Internal Control System
C. Risk Management
D. Compliance Control
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 41
Five internal control components are:
A. Control environment, Risk assessment, Control activities, Information and communication & Monitoring
B. Control environment, Risk assessment, and Operational control, Information and communication & Monitoring
C. Control environment, Risk Prioritization, Control activities, Information and communication & Monitoring
D. Control environment, Risk Prioritization, Control activities, Information and communication & Monitoring
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 42
Enterprise risk management encompasses all EXCEPT:
A. Aligning risk appetite and strategy
B. Enhancing risk responsibilities and decisions
C. Increasing Operational Surprises
D. Seizing Opportunities
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 43
Organization’s Objectives are described in three general categories:
A. Effectiveness of operations, Efficiency of strategic plans, Reliability of internal and external reporting
B. Effectiveness of operations, Efficiency of strategic plans, Reliability of internal and external reporting, compliance with applicable laws and regulations
C. Effectiveness and Efficiency of operations, Compliance with applicable laws and regulations, Monitoring and management control system
D. Effectiveness and Efficiency of operations, Reliability of internal and external reporting, Compliance
with applicable laws and regulations
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 44
The plans developed for the audit functions should be updated as circumstances dictate. Such specific types of plans include all EXCEPT:
A. Activity Reports
B. Target dates
C. Opportunities and threats

D. Staffing plans and financial budgets
210-451 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 45
Which one of the following statements is NOT the part of audit work schedule?
A. The extent and type of findings in the last audit
B. Loss of assets, errors and fraud
C. The availability of audit staff resources
D. Opportunities to achieve operations benefits
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 46
Risk is the probability that an event or action may adversely affect the organization or activity under review. In other words, risk is anything that can prevent an organization from achieving an objective. Major components of risk are as follows EXCEPT:
A. Non- Compliance with the laws, rules and regulations
B. An event or cause that can interfere with achieving the objective (e.g. What can go wrong?)
C. A probability or likelihood of occurrence
D. The negative consequences of not achieving the objective
210-451 exam Correct Answer: A

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 100-105 Dumps Exam Q&As:

Question No : 5 – (Topic 1)  Refer to the exhibit
100-105 dumps

Host A is sending a packet to Host B for the first time. What destination MAC address will Host A use in the ARP request?
A. 192.168.0.1
B. 172.16.0.50
C. 00-17-94-61-18-b0
D. 00-19-d3-2d-c3-b2
E. ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff
F. 255.255.255.255
100-105 exam 
Answer: E
Explanation:
For the initial communication, Host A will send a broadcast ARP (all F’s) to determine the correct address to use to reach the destination. ARP sends an Ethernet frame called an ARP request to every host on the shared link-layer legmen. The Ethernet header includes the source host MAC address and a destination address of all Fs representing a broadcast frame. The ARP request contains the sender’s MAC and IP address and the target (destination) IP address. 
Question No : 6 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit
100-105 dumps

What kind of cable should be used to make each connection that is identified by the numbers shown?
A.
1 – Ethernet Crossover cable
2 – Ethernet straight-through cable
3 – Fiber Optic cable
4 – Rollover cable
B.
1 – Ethernet straight-through cable
2 – Ethernet straight-through cable
3 – Serial cable
4 – Rollover cable
C.
1 – Ethernet rollover cable
2 – Ethernet crossover cable
3 – Serial cable
4 – Null-modem cable
D.
1 – Ethernet straight-through cable
2 – Ethernet Crossover cable
3 – Serial cable
4 – Rollover cable
E.
1 – Ethernet straight-through cable
2 – Ethernet Crossover cable
3 – Serial cable
4 – Ethernet Straight-through cable
Answer: B
Explanation:
When connecting a PC to a switch, a standard Ethernet straight through cable should be used. This same cable should also be used for switch to router connections. Generally speaking, crossover cables are only needed when connecting two like devices (PC-PC, switch-switch, router-router, etc). Routers connect to frame relay and other WAN networks using serial cables. Rollover cables are special cables used for connecting to the console ports of Cisco devices.
Question No : 7 – (Topic 1)  Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

SwitchA receives the frame with the addressing shown. According to the command output also shown in the exhibit, how will SwitchA handle this frame?
A. It will drop the frame.
B. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/6 only.
C. It will flood the frame out all ports.
D. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.
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Answer: B
Explanation:
Switches keep the learned MAC addresses in a table, so that when a frame comes in with a destination MAC address that the switch has already learned, it will forward it to that port only. If a frame comes in with a destination MAC that is not already in the MAC address table, then the frame will be flooded to all ports except for the one that it came in on. In this case, Switch A already knows that 00b0.d0da.cb56 resides on port fa0/6, so it will forward the from out that port.
Question No : 8 – (Topic 1) Which statements accurately describe CDP? (Choose three.)
A. CDP is an IEEE standard protocol.
B. CDP is a Cisco proprietary protocol.
C. CDP is a datalink layer protocol.
D. CDP is a network layer protocol.
E. CDP can discover directly connected neighboring Cisco devices.
F. CDP can discover Cisco devices that are not directly connected.
Answer: B,C,E
Explanation:
CDP (Cisco Discovery Protocol) is a proprietary protocol designed by Cisco to help administrators collect information about both locally attached and remote devices. By using CDP, you can gather hardware and protocol information about neighbor devices containing useful info for troubleshooting and documenting the network.
Question No : 9 – (Topic 1)  Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A network device needs to be installed in the place of the icon labeled Network Device to accommodate a leased line attachment to the Internet. Which network device and interface configuration meets the minimum requirements for this installation?
A. a router with two Ethernet interfaces
B. a switch with two Ethernet interfaces
C. a router with one Ethernet and one serial interface
D. a switch with one Ethernet and one serial interface
E. a router with one Ethernet and one modem interface
100-105 pdf 
Answer: C
Explanation:
Only a router can terminate a leased line attachment access circuit, and only a router can connect two different IP networks. Here, we will need a router with two interfaces, one serial connection for the line attachment and one Ethernet interface to connect to the switch on the LAN
Question No : 10 – (Topic 1)  What must occur before a workstation can exchange HTTP packets with a web server?
A. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
B. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
C. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
D. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
E. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
F. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
Answer: D
Explanation:
HTTP uses TCP port 80, and a TCP port 80 connection must be established for HTTP communication to occur.
Question No : 11 Make Successfully Resolve to server1.example.com where DNS Server is 192.168.0.254.
Answer: 1. vi /etc/resolv.conf
Question No : 12. Quota is implemented on /data but not working properly. Find out the Problem and implement the quota to user1 to have a soft limit 60 inodes (files) and hard limit of 70 inodes (files).
Answer and Explanation:
Quotas are used to limit a user’s or a group of users’ ability to consume disk space. This prevents a small group of users from monopolizing disk capacity and potentially interfering with other users or the entire system. Disk quotas are commonly used by ISPs, by Web hosting companies, on FTP sites, and on corporate file servers to ensure continued availability of their systems. Without quotas, one or more users can upload files on an FTP server to the point of filling a filesystem. Once the affected partition is full, other users are effectively denied upload access to the disk. This is also a reason to mount different filesystem directories on different partitions. For example, if you only had partitions for your root (/) directory and swap space, someone uploading to your computer could fill up all of the space in your root directory (/). Without at least a little free space in the root directory (/), your system could become unstable or even crash. You have two ways to set quotas for users. You can limit users by inodes or by kilobytesized disk blocks. Every Linux file requires an inode. Therefore, you can limit users by the number of files or by absolute space. You can set up different quotas for different filesystems. For example, you can set different quotas for users on the /home and /tmp directories if they are mounted on their own partitions. Limits on disk blocks restrict the amount of disk space available to a user on your system. Older versions of Red Hat Linux included LinuxConf, which included a graphical tool to configure quotas. As of this writing, Red Hat no longer has a graphical quota configuration tool. Today, you can configure quotas on RHEL only through the command line interface.
1. vi /etc/fstab /dev/hda11 /data ext3 defaults,usrquota 1 2
2. Either Reboot the System or remount the partition.
Mount -o remount /dev/hda11 /data
3. touch /data/aquota.user
4. quotacheck -ufm /data
5. quotaon -u /data

6. edquota -u user1 /data and Specified the Soft limit and hard limit on opened file.
To verify either quota is working or not: Soft limit specify the limit to generate warnings to users and hard limit can’t cross by the user. Use the quota command or repquota command to monitor the quota information.
Question No : 13 One Logical Volume named lv1 is created under vg0. The Initial Size of that Logical Volume is 100MB. Now you required the size 500MB. Make successfully the size of that Logical Volume 500M without losing any data. As well as size should be increased online.
Answer and Explanation:
The LVM system organizes hard disks into Logical Volume (LV) groups. Essentially, physical hard disk partitions (or possibly RAID arrays) are set up in a bunch of equalsized chunks known as Physical Extents (PE). As there are several other concepts associated with the LVM system, let’s start with some basic definitions: Physical Volume (PV) is the standard partition that you add to the LVM mix. Normally, a physical volume is a standard primary or logical partition. It can also be a RAID array. Physical Extent (PE) is a chunk of disk space. Every PV is divided into a number of equal sized PEs. Every PE in a LV group is the same size. Different LV groups can have different sized PEs. Logical Extent (LE) is also a chunk of disk space. Every LE is mapped to a specific PE. Logical Volume (LV) is composed of a group of LEs. You can mount a filesystem such as /home and /var on an LV. Volume Group (VG) is composed of a group of LVs. It is the organizational group for LVM. Most of the commands that you’ll use apply to a specific VG.
1. Verify the size of Logical Volume: lvdisplay /dev/vg0/lv1
2. Verify the Size on mounted directory: df -h or df -h mounted directory name
3. Use : lvextend -L+400M /dev/vg0/lv1
4. ext2online -d /dev/vg0/lv1 to bring extended size online.
5. Again Verify using lvdisplay and df -h command.
4. Create one partitions having size 100MB and mount it on /data.
100-105 exam Answer and Explanation:

1. Use fdisk /dev/hda To create new partition.
2. Type n For New partitions
3. It will ask for Logical or Primary Partitions. Press l for logical.
4. It will ask for the Starting Cylinder: Use the Default by pressing Enter Key.
5. Type the Size: +100M You can Specify either Last cylinder of Size here.
6. Press P to verify the partitions lists and remember the partitions name.
7. Press w to write on partitions table.
8. Either Reboot or use partprobe command.
9. Use mkfs -t ext3 /dev/hda? Or mke2fs -j /dev/hda? To create ext3 filesystem.
10. vi /etc/fstab Write: /dev/hda? /data ext3 defaults 1 2
11. Verify by mounting on current Sessions also: mount /dev/hda? /data
Question No : 14. You are new System Administrator and from now you are going to handle the system and your main task is Network monitoring, Backup and Restore. But you don’t know the root password. Change the root password to redhat and login in default Runlevel.
Answer and Explanation:
When you Boot the System, it starts on default Runlevel specified in /etc/inittab: Id:?:initdefault: When System Successfully boot, it will ask for username and password. But you don’t know the root’s password. To change the root password you need to boot the system into single user mode. You can pass the kernel arguments from the boot loader.
1. Restart the System.
2. You will get the boot loader GRUB screen.
3. Press a and type 1 or s for single mode ro root=LABEL=/ rhgb queit s
4. System will boot on Single User mode.
5. Use passwd command to change.

6. Press ctrl+d
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