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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-115 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-18)
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QUESTION 17
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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 210-255 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-15)

QUESTION 1
Which network device creates and sends the initial packet of a session?
A. source
B. origination
C. destination
D. network
210-255 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
In the context of incident handling phases, which two activities fall under scoping? (Choose two.)
A. determining the number of attackers that are associated with a security incident
B. ascertaining the number and types of vulnerabilities on your network
C. identifying the extent that a security incident is impacting protected resources on the network
D. determining what and how much data may have been affected
E. identifying the attackers that are associated with a security incident
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 3
Which string matches the regular expression r(ege)+x?
A. rx
B. regeegex
C. r(ege)x
D. rege+x
210-255 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which source provides reports of vulnerabilities in software and hardware to a Security Operations Center?
A. Analysis Center
B. National CSIRT
C. Internal CSIRT
D. Physical Security
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
From a security perspective, why is it important to employ a clock synchronization protocol on a network?
A. so that everyone knows the local time
B. to ensure employees adhere to work schedule
C. to construct an accurate timeline of events when responding to an incident
D. to guarantee that updates are pushed out according to schedule
210-255 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which element is part of an incident response plan?
A. organizational approach to incident response
B. organizational approach to security
C. disaster recovery
D. backups
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What mechanism does the Linux operating system provide to control access to files?
A. privileges required
B. user interaction
C. file permissions
D. access complexity
210-255 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
210-255
You notice that the email volume history has been abnormally high.
Which potential result is true?
A. Email sent from your domain might be filtered by the recipient.
B. Messages sent to your domain may be queued up until traffic dies down.
C. Several hosts in your network may be compromised.
D. Packets may be dropped due to network congestion.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
210-255 dumps
Which type of log is this an example of?
A. IDS log
B. proxy log
C. NetFlow log
D. syslog
210-255 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
210-255 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from this ping result?
A. The public IP address of cisco.com is 2001:420:1101:1::a.
B. The Cisco.com website is down.
C. The Cisco.com website is responding with an internal IP.
D. The public IP address of cisco.com is an IPv4 address.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which option has a drastic impact on network traffic because it can cause legitimate traffic to be blocked?
A. true positive
B. true negative
C. false positive
D. false negative
210-255 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You have run a suspicious file in a sandbox analysis tool to see what the file does. The analysis report shows that outbound callouts were made post infection. Which two pieces of information from the analysis report are needed or required to investigate the callouts? (Choose two.)
A. file size
B. domain names
C. dropped files
D. signatures
E. host IP addresses
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 13
Which goal of data normalization is true?
A. Reduce data redundancy.
B. Increase data redundancy.
C. Reduce data availability.
D. Increase data availability
210-255 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which CVSSv3 metric value increases when the attacker is able to modify all files protected by the vulnerable component?
A. confidentiality
B. integrity
C. availability
D. complexity
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
210-255 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of log is this an example of?
A. syslog
B. NetFlow log
C. proxy log
D. IDS log
210-255 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which type of analysis allows you to see how likely an exploit could affect your network?
A. descriptive
B. casual
C. probabilistic
D. inferential
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which type of analysis assigns values to scenarios to see what the outcome might be in each scenario?
A. deterministic
B. exploratory
C. probabilistic
D. descriptive
210-255 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which description of a retrospective maKvare detection is true?
A. You use Wireshark to identify the malware source.
B. You use historical information from one or more sources to identify the affected host or file.
C. You use information from a network analyzer to identify the malware source.
D. You use Wireshark to identify the affected host or file.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which two components are included in a 5-tuple? (Choose two.)
A. port number
B. destination IP address
C. data packet
D. user name
E. host logs
210-255 dumps Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 20
Which CVSSv3 metric value increases when attacks consume network bandwidth, processor cycles, or disk space?
A. confidentiality
B. integrity
C. availability
D. complexity
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
You see confidential data being exfiltrated to an IP address that is attributed to a known Advanced Persistent Threat group. Assume that this is part of a real attach and not a network misconfiguration. Which category does this event fall under as defined in the Diamond Model of Intrusion?
A. reconnaissance
B. weaponization
C. delivery
D. action on objectives
210-255 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which regular expression matches “color” and “colour”?
A. col[0-9]+our
B. colo?ur
C. colou?r
D. ]a-z]{7}
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
Which feature is used to find possible vulnerable services running on a server?
A. CPU utilization
B. security policy
C. temporary internet files
D. listening ports
210-255 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Which element is included in an incident response plan?
A. organization mission
B. junior analyst approval
C. day-to-day firefighting
D. siloed approach to communications
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Drag and drop the type of evidence from the left onto the correct descnption(s) of that evidence on the right.
Select and Place:
210-255 dumps
210-255 exam Correct Answer:

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the element name from the left onto the correct piece of the NetFlow v5 record from a security event on the right.

Select and Place:

210-255 dumps Correct Answer:

QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the element name from the left onto the correct piece of the PCAP file on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 28
Drag and drop the elements of incident handling from the left into the correct order on the right.
Select and Place:
210-255 dumps
210-255 pdf Correct Answer:
210-255 dumps

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-135 Dumps Exam Q&As(46-51)

QUESTION 46
A construction company is about to start a new project. It requires hiring a project manager for this project. Which of the following are the most important skills that a person must have to be selected as a project manager?
A. Problem solving
B. Team building and human resources
C. Leading
D. Communication
E. Negotiation and influential
300-135 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A good project manager must have all of the above mentioned skills. Out of these, the communication skills are the most important skills for a project manager. Communications skills are part of general management skills and are used to exchange information. Communication has many dimensions: Written and oral, listening, and speaking Internal (within the project) and external (customer, the media, the public) Formal (reports, briefings) and informal (memos, ad hoc conversations) Vertical (up and down the organization) and horizontal (with peers) Communication is the most important skill that a project manager must posses. It is the single most important characteristics of a top-class project manager. Project managers must communicate well in order to integrate and maximize the performance of team members. Oral and written communications are the backbone of every successful project. During different phases of a project, a project manager requires to communicate through different manners (for example, documentation, meeting updates, etc.) and he must ensure that the information communicated is explicit, clear, and complete. Answer options E, C, A, and B are incorrect. All these mentioned skills make a person a good project manager. Communication skills top the list. What are organizational skills? Organizational skills are part of management skills to organize various aspects of a project in order to complete it successfully. A good project manager uses these skills to successfully organize his meetings, as well as to keep documentations, quotes, contracts, etc., which can be fetched at any given moment. Organizational skills also include planning and time management skills. What are budgeting skills? Budgeting skills include the knowledge of finance and accounting principles. A project manager must possess these skills in order to perform cost estimates for project budgeting. Reading and understanding quotes, preparing purchase orders, and reconciling purchase invoices are all part of budgeting skills. In order to make the budget of a project, the project manager must have excellent budgeting skills. What are problem solving skills? Problem solving skills include the ability to define and analyze problems, and to take decisions in order to solve the problems by implementing those decisions. Every project manager must possess strong problem solving skills. Problem solving is a two-fold process: Defining the problem Taking a decision and then
implementing it A project manager is responsible for determining the best course of action to take in order to resolve the problem. What are negotiating and influencing skills? Negotiating skills includes demanding and convincing others for the rightful thing or act. A project manager needs this skill to negotiate on projects in almost every area such as scope definitions, budgets, contracts, resource assignments, schedules, etc. Influencing skills include the convincing power of a person. It is an ability to change minds and the course of events. A good project manager requires these skills to utilize them in all areas of project management.

QUESTION 47
Which of the following individuals has a management role in a core business area, such as research and development, design, manufacturing, provisioning, testing, or maintenance?
A. Functional manager
B. Operations manager
C. Project manager
D. Seller
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The role of operations manager is to perform various management roles in a core business area, such as research and development, design, manufacturing, provisioning, testing, or maintenance. The operations manager directly deals with constructing and maintaining the saleable products or services of the enterprise. Answer option C is incorrect. A project manager is an expert in the field of project management. He is responsible for the entire project from inception to completion. The project manager leads the team and helps negotiate the multiple relationships within any project whether with clients, team members, firm principals or any variety of partners and functions as the hub of a project. Answer option A is incorrect. The
role of a functional manager is to perform various management roles within an administrative or functional area of the business, such as human resources, finance, accounting, or procurement. He is assigned his own permanent staff to carry out the ongoing work. He should have a clear directive to manage all tasks within his functional area of responsibility. Answer option D is incorrect. Seller is also known as a vendor, supplier or contractor. They are external company’s elements that enter into a contractual agreement to provide components or services necessary for the project.

QUESTION 48
John is the project manager for his organization. He has created a status dashboard for his stakeholders. What is a status dashboard?
A. It is a report that details the current status of risks and issues.
B. It is a software application that allows stakeholders to view the project manager’s performance.
C. It is a web-based tool to inspect the project deliverables for performance.
D. It is a report that reflects the overall performance of scope, schedule, quality, cost, or other project performance metrics.
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Of all the choices, the best explanation is that a dashboard is a report for quick review of the project’s performance metrics. While there are some software solutions, they still focus on the key performance criteria of the project. Answer option C is incorrect. This answer defines the definition of quality control, not the dashboard’s review of project performance. Answer option B is incorrect. Dashboards focus on the performance of the project’s key performance factors, not the project manager. Answer option A is incorrect. A status report could include the details of the project’s risks and issues, but usually not the dashboard.

QUESTION 49
You have been hired as a project manager for Tech Perfect Inc. You are studying the documentation of planning of a project. The documentation states that there are twenty-five stakeholders with the project. What will be the number of communication channels for the project?
A. 300
B. 50
C. 600
D. 25
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
According to the question, the project has twenty-five stakeholders. Communication channels are paths of communication with stakeholders in a project. The number of communication channels shows the complexity of a project’s communication and can be derived through the formula shown below: Total Number of Communication Channels = n (n-1)/2 where, n is the number of stakeholders. Hence, a project
  having five stakeholders will have ten communication channels. Putting the value of the number of stake holder in the formula will provide the number of communication channels: Number of communication channel = (n (n-1)) / 2 = (25 (25-1)) / 2 = (25 x 24) / 2 = 600 / 2 = 300 Who are project stakeholders?
Project stakeholders are those entities within or without an organization, which: Sponsor a project or, Have an interest or a gain upon a successful completion of a project. Examples of project stakeholders include the customer, the user group, the project manager, the development team, the testers, etc. Stakeholders are anyone who has an interest in the project. Project stakeholders are individuals and organizations that are actively involved in the project, or whose interests may be affected as a result of project execution or project completion. They may also exert influence over the project’s objectives and outcomes. The project management team must identify the stakeholders, determine their requirements and expectations, and, to the extent possible, manage their influence in relation to the requirements to ensure a successful project.

QUESTION 50
You are the project manager of the GHY Project. This project is scheduled to last for one year and has a BAC of $4,500,000. You are currently 45 percent complete with this project, though you are supposed to be at your second milestone which accounts for half of the project completion. There have been some errors in the project, which has caused you to spend $2,073,654. What is this project’s schedule variance?
A. -$48,654
B. 13 percent
C. -$225,000
D. 0.98
300-135 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
he schedule variance can be found by subtracting the planned value form the earned value. In this instance, it is $2,025,000 minus $2,250,000. SV = 2,025,000 – 2,250,000 = -225,000 Schedule variance (SV) is a measure of schedule performance on a project. The variance notifies that the schedule is ahead or behind what was planned for this period in time. The schedule variance is calculated based on the following formula: SV = Earned Value (EV) – Planned Value (PV) If the resulting schedule is negative, it indicates that the project is behind schedule. A value greater than 0 shows that the project is ahead of the planned schedule. A value of 0 indicates that the project is right on target. Answer option A is incorrect.
This is the cost variance for the project. Answer option B is incorrect. 13 percent is not a valid answer. Answer option D is incorrect. This is not a valid variance for this question; variances are typically negative numbers.

QUESTION 51
The figure given below demonstrates the communication model for a project. What role does the component E play in the communications model?
A. Static
B. Deterrent
C. Noise
D. Barrier
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Noise is anything that disrupts the communication method such as static on the telephone line, distracting conversations, or misunderstandings.
Answer option A is incorrect. Static is an example of noise, but it is not part of the communication model.
Answer option D is incorrect. A barrier to communication is when communication cannot happen under the present conditions.
Answer option B is incorrect. A deterrent is not a valid part of the communication model.

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 210-451 Dumps Exam Q&As(6-46)

QUESTION 6
The Cisco InterCloud Fabric Director provides what functionality?
A. It is the single point of management and consumption for hybrid Cloud solutions.
B. It is the single point of management and consumption for public Cloud solutions.
C. It is the single point of management and consumption for private Cloud solutions.
D. It is a plugin of a Virtual Machine Manager to provide management and configuration for hybrid Cloud solutions.
210-451 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which two options are benefits of the Cisco InterCloud Solution? (Choose two.)
A. enforces standardization on a single hypervisor product
B. provides self service for hybrid resources
C. management of heterogeneous SAN solutions
D. secure connectivity between public and private Clouds
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
Which two options are characteristics of NAS? (Choose two.)
A. NAS provides block-based storage only.
B. NAS provides storage and filesystems.
C. NAS requires no authentication.
D. SMB is a protocol that can be used for NAS.

210-451 dumps Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
Which option is one essential characteristic of Cloud computing?
A. It must use virtualization.
B. It must provide load balancing services.
C. It must provide on-demand self service.
D. It must run on open source software.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which description of RAID6 is true?
A. block-level striping of data with double distributed parity
B. drive-level striping of data with double distributed parity
C. block-level striping of data with single distributed parity
D. block-level mirroring of data with double distributed parity
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Where is the Hypervisor installed?
A. Host operating system
B. Guest operating system
C. Control node
D. Computer node
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which API structure does Cisco UCS Manager support?
A. JSON
B. XML
C. RUBY
D. PERL
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which of the following situation would not impair audit objectivity?
A. An auditor is assigned to audit a business function that the auditor was responsible for nine months ago
B. An individual temporarily assigned to the internal audit activity because of the individual’sexpert knowledge in a particular business function assigned to audit an activity that theindividual was responsible for just prior to transferring to the internal audit activity
C. An auditor is assigned to perform a post-implementation review on a system for which the auditor participated in the design process
D. An auditor is assigned to perform a post-implementation review on a system for which the auditor performed a procedure review and made control recommendations prior to the system’s implementation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Internal auditing:
A. Is an independent, objective assurance and consulting activity designed to add value and improve anorganization’s operations
B. Is an independent, performance measurement and consulting activity designed to addValue and improve an organization’s operations
C. Helps an organization accomplish objectives by bringing a systematic, disciplinedApproach to evaluate but rarely improve the effectiveness of risk management, control and governance
D. Helps an organization accomplish objectives by bringing a targeted, disciplined approach to evaluate but rarely improve the effectiveness of risk management, control and governance
210-451 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
IIA’s code of ethics applies to __________ that provide internal auditing services:
A. Individuals
B. Entities
C. Individuals and entities
D. Individuals, entities and indirect authorities
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Internal auditors are expected to uphold the following principles:
A. Integrity, objectivity, competency
B. Integrity, objectivity, confidentiality, and competency
C. Integrity, objectivity, awareness and competency
D. Integrity, objectivity, entirety
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
“Internal auditors make a balanced assessment of all the relevant circumstances and are not unduly influenced by their own interests or by others in forming judgments.” This statement best explains one of the following principles:
A. Competency
B. Confidentiality

C. Objectivity
D. Integrity
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Internal auditors, engaging in activities that are illegal and discreditable to the profession of internal auditing or the organization, violate which of the following principles:
A. Objectivity
B. Awareness
C. Integrity
D. Competence
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which of the following statements is NOT related to competency principle of internal auditing? Internal auditors:
A. Shall continually improve their proficiency and effectiveness and quality of their services
B. Shall perform internal auditing services in accordance with the standards for the professional practice of internal auditing
C. Shall engage only in those services for which they have the necessary knowledge, skills and experience
D. Shall disclose all material facts known to them that, if not disclosed, may distort the reporting of activities under review
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
While performing consulting services internal auditors should specifically maintain:
A. Proficiency level
B. Objectivity
C. Competence
D. Confidentiality
210-451 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
All these statements elaborate purpose of standards EXCEPT:
A. Foster improved organizational processes and operations
B. Establish the basis for the evaluation of internal audit performance
C. Subvert the framework for performing and promoting broad range of value-added internal audit activities.
D. Delineate basic principles that represent the practice of internal auditing as it should be
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Nature of internal audit activities and quality criteria against which the performance of these services can be evaluated is best portrayed by:
A. Performance Standards
B. Attribute Standards
C. Implementation Standards

D. Evaluation Standards
210-451 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
There are multiple sets of attribute and performance standards:
A. False
B. True
C. True- In specific conditions
D. False- In specific conditions
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
All of the following phrases are used to express the auditor’s opinion EXCEPT:
A. Give a true and fair view
B. Present fairly, in all material respects
C. Timely and consistent opinion
D. Comprehensible and realistic view
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
The auditor should plan an audit with an attitude of:
A. Professional competence
B. Professional skepticism
C. Subject awareness
D. Opinion sharing
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
Which of the following is a limitation in an audit that affects auditors’ ability to detect material misstatements?
A. Scope of an audit
B. The use of testing
C. Over- generalization
D. Unidentifiable risks
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Reasonable assurance relates to the:
A. Audit planning process
B. Scope of the internal audit
C. End of the audit process
D. Whole audit process
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
The responsibility for preparing and presenting the audited financial statements is that of:
A. Internal auditor
B. Engagement client/ Management of the entity
C. Process owner
D. Auditing Agency
210-451 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
All these are disparities in public and private sector audits EXCEPT:
A. Objective and scope
B. Specific requirements of relevant regulation, ordinances or ministerial directives
C. Specific and broad range mandate in public sector
D. Reasonable assurance
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
Which one of the following is an internal control component?
A. Compliance control
B. Control activities
C. Financial Reporting Controls
D. Communication channels and network
210-451 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
Management must ___________ assess business risk and develop clearly defined control objectives:
A. Continually
B. Annually
C. Periodically
D. Weekly
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
Internal audit routinely reviews compliance risk and also should be reviewing business risk. The efforts to control both risk types will purely enhance:
A. The short-term profitability and viability of an organization
B. The long-term profitability and viability of an organization
C. Both short-term and long-term profitability and viability of an organization
D. None of these
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
Following statements define risk EXCEPT:
A. Organization has knowledge of facts constituting a dangerous condition
B. Organization voluntarily exposes itself to the danger
C. The element of assurance in an undertaking
D. Measured in terms of impact and likelihood
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 34
Strategic planning is the process of taking a long-term view of the organization, the longer the view, the greater the uncertainty of risks and opportunities. Such reservations can better be handled by:
A. Timely decisions
B. Flexible/ Adaptive plans and processes
C. Periodic risk assessments
D. Focusing on current period organizational activity
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
High-risk scores are those with an average of scores:
A. 3.75 or more
B. 3.25 or more
C. 4.25 or more
D. 4.00 or more
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
Low-risk scores are those with an average of scores:
A. 2.25 or less
B. 2.75 or less
C. 2.00 or less
D. 3.25 or less
210-451 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
Risks inherent in the management process are known as:
A. Residual risks
B. Long-term risks
C. Control risks
D. Strategic risks
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 38
Both residual and control risk need to be_______________ dealt with in project management.
A. Timely
B. Implicitly
C. Professionally
D. Explicitly
210-451 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 39
“Ongoing monitoring activities are conducted to periodically reassess risk and the effectiveness of control
risk,” is an objective of:
A. Risk Identification

B. Risk Measurement
C. Risk Management Process
D. Risk Prioritization
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 40
Faulty human judgments, misunderstanding of instructions, errors, management override, and collusion
and cost/benefit considerations are the limitations of:
A. Reasonable Assurance
B. Internal Control System
C. Risk Management
D. Compliance Control
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 41
Five internal control components are:
A. Control environment, Risk assessment, Control activities, Information and communication & Monitoring
B. Control environment, Risk assessment, and Operational control, Information and communication & Monitoring
C. Control environment, Risk Prioritization, Control activities, Information and communication & Monitoring
D. Control environment, Risk Prioritization, Control activities, Information and communication & Monitoring
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 42
Enterprise risk management encompasses all EXCEPT:
A. Aligning risk appetite and strategy
B. Enhancing risk responsibilities and decisions
C. Increasing Operational Surprises
D. Seizing Opportunities
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 43
Organization’s Objectives are described in three general categories:
A. Effectiveness of operations, Efficiency of strategic plans, Reliability of internal and external reporting
B. Effectiveness of operations, Efficiency of strategic plans, Reliability of internal and external reporting, compliance with applicable laws and regulations
C. Effectiveness and Efficiency of operations, Compliance with applicable laws and regulations, Monitoring and management control system
D. Effectiveness and Efficiency of operations, Reliability of internal and external reporting, Compliance
with applicable laws and regulations
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 44
The plans developed for the audit functions should be updated as circumstances dictate. Such specific types of plans include all EXCEPT:
A. Activity Reports
B. Target dates
C. Opportunities and threats

D. Staffing plans and financial budgets
210-451 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 45
Which one of the following statements is NOT the part of audit work schedule?
A. The extent and type of findings in the last audit
B. Loss of assets, errors and fraud
C. The availability of audit staff resources
D. Opportunities to achieve operations benefits
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 46
Risk is the probability that an event or action may adversely affect the organization or activity under review. In other words, risk is anything that can prevent an organization from achieving an objective. Major components of risk are as follows EXCEPT:
A. Non- Compliance with the laws, rules and regulations
B. An event or cause that can interfere with achieving the objective (e.g. What can go wrong?)
C. A probability or likelihood of occurrence
D. The negative consequences of not achieving the objective
210-451 exam Correct Answer: A

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Question No : 5 – (Topic 1)  Refer to the exhibit
100-105 dumps

Host A is sending a packet to Host B for the first time. What destination MAC address will Host A use in the ARP request?
A. 192.168.0.1
B. 172.16.0.50
C. 00-17-94-61-18-b0
D. 00-19-d3-2d-c3-b2
E. ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff
F. 255.255.255.255
100-105 exam 
Answer: E
Explanation:
For the initial communication, Host A will send a broadcast ARP (all F’s) to determine the correct address to use to reach the destination. ARP sends an Ethernet frame called an ARP request to every host on the shared link-layer legmen. The Ethernet header includes the source host MAC address and a destination address of all Fs representing a broadcast frame. The ARP request contains the sender’s MAC and IP address and the target (destination) IP address. 
Question No : 6 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit
100-105 dumps

What kind of cable should be used to make each connection that is identified by the numbers shown?
A.
1 – Ethernet Crossover cable
2 – Ethernet straight-through cable
3 – Fiber Optic cable
4 – Rollover cable
B.
1 – Ethernet straight-through cable
2 – Ethernet straight-through cable
3 – Serial cable
4 – Rollover cable
C.
1 – Ethernet rollover cable
2 – Ethernet crossover cable
3 – Serial cable
4 – Null-modem cable
D.
1 – Ethernet straight-through cable
2 – Ethernet Crossover cable
3 – Serial cable
4 – Rollover cable
E.
1 – Ethernet straight-through cable
2 – Ethernet Crossover cable
3 – Serial cable
4 – Ethernet Straight-through cable
Answer: B
Explanation:
When connecting a PC to a switch, a standard Ethernet straight through cable should be used. This same cable should also be used for switch to router connections. Generally speaking, crossover cables are only needed when connecting two like devices (PC-PC, switch-switch, router-router, etc). Routers connect to frame relay and other WAN networks using serial cables. Rollover cables are special cables used for connecting to the console ports of Cisco devices.
Question No : 7 – (Topic 1)  Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

SwitchA receives the frame with the addressing shown. According to the command output also shown in the exhibit, how will SwitchA handle this frame?
A. It will drop the frame.
B. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/6 only.
C. It will flood the frame out all ports.
D. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.
100-105 dumps 
Answer: B
Explanation:
Switches keep the learned MAC addresses in a table, so that when a frame comes in with a destination MAC address that the switch has already learned, it will forward it to that port only. If a frame comes in with a destination MAC that is not already in the MAC address table, then the frame will be flooded to all ports except for the one that it came in on. In this case, Switch A already knows that 00b0.d0da.cb56 resides on port fa0/6, so it will forward the from out that port.
Question No : 8 – (Topic 1) Which statements accurately describe CDP? (Choose three.)
A. CDP is an IEEE standard protocol.
B. CDP is a Cisco proprietary protocol.
C. CDP is a datalink layer protocol.
D. CDP is a network layer protocol.
E. CDP can discover directly connected neighboring Cisco devices.
F. CDP can discover Cisco devices that are not directly connected.
Answer: B,C,E
Explanation:
CDP (Cisco Discovery Protocol) is a proprietary protocol designed by Cisco to help administrators collect information about both locally attached and remote devices. By using CDP, you can gather hardware and protocol information about neighbor devices containing useful info for troubleshooting and documenting the network.
Question No : 9 – (Topic 1)  Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A network device needs to be installed in the place of the icon labeled Network Device to accommodate a leased line attachment to the Internet. Which network device and interface configuration meets the minimum requirements for this installation?
A. a router with two Ethernet interfaces
B. a switch with two Ethernet interfaces
C. a router with one Ethernet and one serial interface
D. a switch with one Ethernet and one serial interface
E. a router with one Ethernet and one modem interface
100-105 pdf 
Answer: C
Explanation:
Only a router can terminate a leased line attachment access circuit, and only a router can connect two different IP networks. Here, we will need a router with two interfaces, one serial connection for the line attachment and one Ethernet interface to connect to the switch on the LAN
Question No : 10 – (Topic 1)  What must occur before a workstation can exchange HTTP packets with a web server?
A. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
B. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
C. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
D. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
E. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
F. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
Answer: D
Explanation:
HTTP uses TCP port 80, and a TCP port 80 connection must be established for HTTP communication to occur.
Question No : 11 Make Successfully Resolve to server1.example.com where DNS Server is 192.168.0.254.
Answer: 1. vi /etc/resolv.conf
Question No : 12. Quota is implemented on /data but not working properly. Find out the Problem and implement the quota to user1 to have a soft limit 60 inodes (files) and hard limit of 70 inodes (files).
Answer and Explanation:
Quotas are used to limit a user’s or a group of users’ ability to consume disk space. This prevents a small group of users from monopolizing disk capacity and potentially interfering with other users or the entire system. Disk quotas are commonly used by ISPs, by Web hosting companies, on FTP sites, and on corporate file servers to ensure continued availability of their systems. Without quotas, one or more users can upload files on an FTP server to the point of filling a filesystem. Once the affected partition is full, other users are effectively denied upload access to the disk. This is also a reason to mount different filesystem directories on different partitions. For example, if you only had partitions for your root (/) directory and swap space, someone uploading to your computer could fill up all of the space in your root directory (/). Without at least a little free space in the root directory (/), your system could become unstable or even crash. You have two ways to set quotas for users. You can limit users by inodes or by kilobytesized disk blocks. Every Linux file requires an inode. Therefore, you can limit users by the number of files or by absolute space. You can set up different quotas for different filesystems. For example, you can set different quotas for users on the /home and /tmp directories if they are mounted on their own partitions. Limits on disk blocks restrict the amount of disk space available to a user on your system. Older versions of Red Hat Linux included LinuxConf, which included a graphical tool to configure quotas. As of this writing, Red Hat no longer has a graphical quota configuration tool. Today, you can configure quotas on RHEL only through the command line interface.
1. vi /etc/fstab /dev/hda11 /data ext3 defaults,usrquota 1 2
2. Either Reboot the System or remount the partition.
Mount -o remount /dev/hda11 /data
3. touch /data/aquota.user
4. quotacheck -ufm /data
5. quotaon -u /data

6. edquota -u user1 /data and Specified the Soft limit and hard limit on opened file.
To verify either quota is working or not: Soft limit specify the limit to generate warnings to users and hard limit can’t cross by the user. Use the quota command or repquota command to monitor the quota information.
Question No : 13 One Logical Volume named lv1 is created under vg0. The Initial Size of that Logical Volume is 100MB. Now you required the size 500MB. Make successfully the size of that Logical Volume 500M without losing any data. As well as size should be increased online.
Answer and Explanation:
The LVM system organizes hard disks into Logical Volume (LV) groups. Essentially, physical hard disk partitions (or possibly RAID arrays) are set up in a bunch of equalsized chunks known as Physical Extents (PE). As there are several other concepts associated with the LVM system, let’s start with some basic definitions: Physical Volume (PV) is the standard partition that you add to the LVM mix. Normally, a physical volume is a standard primary or logical partition. It can also be a RAID array. Physical Extent (PE) is a chunk of disk space. Every PV is divided into a number of equal sized PEs. Every PE in a LV group is the same size. Different LV groups can have different sized PEs. Logical Extent (LE) is also a chunk of disk space. Every LE is mapped to a specific PE. Logical Volume (LV) is composed of a group of LEs. You can mount a filesystem such as /home and /var on an LV. Volume Group (VG) is composed of a group of LVs. It is the organizational group for LVM. Most of the commands that you’ll use apply to a specific VG.
1. Verify the size of Logical Volume: lvdisplay /dev/vg0/lv1
2. Verify the Size on mounted directory: df -h or df -h mounted directory name
3. Use : lvextend -L+400M /dev/vg0/lv1
4. ext2online -d /dev/vg0/lv1 to bring extended size online.
5. Again Verify using lvdisplay and df -h command.
4. Create one partitions having size 100MB and mount it on /data.
100-105 exam Answer and Explanation:

1. Use fdisk /dev/hda To create new partition.
2. Type n For New partitions
3. It will ask for Logical or Primary Partitions. Press l for logical.
4. It will ask for the Starting Cylinder: Use the Default by pressing Enter Key.
5. Type the Size: +100M You can Specify either Last cylinder of Size here.
6. Press P to verify the partitions lists and remember the partitions name.
7. Press w to write on partitions table.
8. Either Reboot or use partprobe command.
9. Use mkfs -t ext3 /dev/hda? Or mke2fs -j /dev/hda? To create ext3 filesystem.
10. vi /etc/fstab Write: /dev/hda? /data ext3 defaults 1 2
11. Verify by mounting on current Sessions also: mount /dev/hda? /data
Question No : 14. You are new System Administrator and from now you are going to handle the system and your main task is Network monitoring, Backup and Restore. But you don’t know the root password. Change the root password to redhat and login in default Runlevel.
Answer and Explanation:
When you Boot the System, it starts on default Runlevel specified in /etc/inittab: Id:?:initdefault: When System Successfully boot, it will ask for username and password. But you don’t know the root’s password. To change the root password you need to boot the system into single user mode. You can pass the kernel arguments from the boot loader.
1. Restart the System.
2. You will get the boot loader GRUB screen.
3. Press a and type 1 or s for single mode ro root=LABEL=/ rhgb queit s
4. System will boot on Single User mode.
5. Use passwd command to change.

6. Press ctrl+d
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QUESTION 20
If you have configured translation rules, what command do you use to verify digit manipulation?
A. execute translation-rule
B. show translation-rule
C. test translation-rule
D. debug translation-rule
E. set translation-rule
300-070 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
If the route patterns 5XXX, 51XX, 513X, and 5134 exist within a call route database, which pattern would be matched if the dialed number was 5124?
A. 5XXX
B. 51XX
C. 513X
D. 5134
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
Employees at a company must dial 9 first to reach an external number. Which route pattern is used to route the call if a user dials the toll-free number 1-866-5551212?
A. 9.18XX[2-9]XXXXXX
B. 9.18[0,5-8][0,5-8]XXXXXXX
C. 9.1XXXXXXXXXX
D. 9.1866XXXXXXX
E. 9.1866[2-9]XXXXXX
F. 9.1[2-9]XX[2-9]XXXXXX
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 23
Which DSCP classification is defined in RFC 2474?
A. DSCP CS3.
B. DSCP 0.
C. DSCP AF11.
D. DSCP CS6.
E. DSCP EF.
F. DSCP CS2.
G. DSCP CS1.
H. DSCP AF21.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
Hackers are sending calls through a gateway router that is running SIP. The engineer blocks all SIP messages to the router except from their SIP server, which has an IP address of 208.177.10.1. The customer also must connect via SIP to their Cisco Expressway server with an IP address of 10.1.10.110. Which series of commands secures the router from the hackers?
A. voice service voip voip security allow ipv4 208.177.10.1 255.255.255.255 ipv4 10.1.10.110 255.255.255.255
B. voice service voip ip address trusted list ipv4 208.177.10.1 255.255.255.255 ipv4 10.1.10.110 255.255.255.255
C. voice service voip allow-connections sip to sip ipv4 208.177.10.1 255.255.255.255 ipv4 10.1.10.110 255.255.255.255
D. voice service voip address-hiding ipv4 208.177.10.1 255.255.255.255 ipv4 10.1.10.110 255.255.255.255
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
On what equipment do you configure Layer 2 to Layer 3 QoS mapping?
A. switch
B. router
C. firewall
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
E. bridge
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
Which statement regarding Cisco IP voice media streaming application is correct?
A. It should be activated on the gateway in cluster that supports the TFTP service.
B. It should be activated on the gatekeeper in cluster that supports the TFTP service.
C. It should be activated on the node in cluster that does not support the TFTP service.
D. It should be activated on the node in cluster that supports the TFTP service.
300-070 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
In a multisite deployment, which two voice codecs are recommended to use between intrasite endpoints? (Choose two)
A. G.711
B. G.728
C. H.264

D. G.722
E. G.729
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 28
Which discard digits instruction removes the access code from a number before passing the number onto an adjacent system?
A. PreDot
B. PreAt
C. NoDigits
D. Trailing-#
300-070 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
What is the correct path selection for a call that is routed through a Cisco Unified Communications Manager system?
A. Devices -andgt; Route Group -andgt; Route List -andgt; Route Pattern
B. Route List -andgt; Route Pattern -andgt; Route Group -andgt; Devices
C. Route Pattern -andgt; Route List -andgt; Route Group -andgt; Devices
D. Route Group -andgt; Devices -andgt; Route Pattern -andgt; Route List
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
After you configure a dial plan to call a particular prefix in the PSTN, you notice that some outbound calls are taking longer than usual (15 seconds) before you hear a connecting tone. What is the likely cause of this issue?
A. The outbound gateway must be configured with the new prefix.
B. The endpoint is choosing the best codec to use.
C. The new prefix is overlapping other route patterns.
D. With some prefixes, this is normal behavior of the PSTN.
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 31
Which are true about the Steelhead appliance backups taken and stored by the CMC appliance? (Select 3)
A. They are text file snapshots of the current running configuration taken at 3 a.m. (by default)
B. The CMC appliance creates hyperlinks of the backups for easy viewing with a Web browser
C. The configurations can be copied from the CMC appliance back to the Steelhead appliance via SCP
D. There is a limit of five configurations per Steelhead appliance that can be stored at any one time in a rolling queue
E. The Steelhead configuration files can be edited on the CMC appliance
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 32
What can be monitored via the CMC appliance? (Select 2)
A. Currently logged in users to Steelhead appliances or the CMC appliance
B. Command history per CMC appliance user
C. Rogue Steelhead appliances on the network
D. Current connections for an individual Steelhead appliance
300-070 pdf 
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 33
The Home page in the Management Console for the CMC appliance can be configured to display what information?
A. Default login used by the CMC appliance for each appliance
B. Last hour of throughput across all managed appliances
C. Status of each individual alarm for each managed Steelhead appliance
D. Last 20 lines of a Steelhead appliance’s system log file
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
When using TACACS+ or RADIUS to authenticate management access to the CMC appliance, which of the following is true?
A. You are required to supply login credentials to every Steelhead appliance
B. You will automatically be logged into to every Steelhead appliance
C. All users will use the same user name and password
D. It is not possible to use TACACS+ or RADIUS
300-070 vce 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
What Steelhead appliance models support the installation of Microsoft Windows Server 2008 R2 package
on the RSP? (Select 2)
A. 1050
B. 250
C. 550
D. 3020
Correct Answer: AD

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Exam Code: 400-351
Exam Name: CCIE Wireless Written Exam
Q&As: 261

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QUESTION NO: 77
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2005 as its application development platform. You have recently finished development of a Windows application using .NET Framework. Users report that the application is not running properly. When
the users try to complete a particular action, the following error message comes out: Unable to find assembly ‘myservices, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=29b5ad26c9de9b95’. You notice that the error occurs as soon as the application tries to call functionality in a serviced component that was registered by using the following command: regsvcs.exe myservices.dll You must make sure that the application can call the functionality in the serviced component with no exceptions being thrown. What will you do to accomplish this task?
A. Run the command line tool: regasm.exe myservices.dll.
B. Copy the serviced component assembly into the C:\Program Files\ComPlus Applications folder.
C. Run the command line tool: gacutil.exe /i myservices.dll.
D. Copy the serviced component assembly into the C:\WINDOWS\system32\Com folder.
400-351 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 78
Allen works as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET as its application development platform. He creates an application using .NET Framework. He wants to encrypt all his e-mails that he sends to anyone. Which of the following will he use to accomplish
the task?
A. PPP
B. FTP
C. PPTP
D. PGP
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 79
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company has several branches worldwide. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2005 as its application development platform. You have recently finished the development of an application using .NET Framework 2.0. The application
can be used only for cryptography. Therefore, you have implemented the application on a computer. What will you call the computer that implemented cryptography?
A. Cryptographic toolkit
B. Cryptosystem
C. Cryptographer
D. Cryptanalyst
400-351 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 80
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET as its application development platform. You create a class library using the .NET Framework. The  library will be used to open the NSCs of computers. Later, you will set up the class library to the
GAC and provide it Full Trust permission. You write down the following code segments for the socket connections: SocketPermission permission = new SocketPermission(PermissionState.Unrestricted); permission.Assert(); A number of the applications that use the class library may not have the necessary permissions to open the network socket connections. Therefore, you are required to withdraw the assertion. Which of the following code segments will you use to accomplish the task?
A. permission.PermitOnly();
B. CodeAccessPermission.RevertDeny();
C. permission.Deny();
D. CodeAccessPermission.RevertAssert();
E. permission.Demand();
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 81
You work as an Application Developer for ABC Inc. You are assigned with developing a Web site that will handle information related to monthly sales of the company. You wish to secure the Web site so that only employees of the Accounts department can view the Web pages. You need to
create roles for the employees of this department. The user account information will be stored in a SQL Server database named Database. You decide to do all this by using the Web Site Administration Tool. Which of the following types of security will you use to accomplish the task?
A. Forms-based authentication
B. Integrated Microsoft Windows authentication
C. Basic authentication
D. Digest authentication
400-351 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 82
You work as a Software Developer for ManSoft Inc. You use Microsoft Visual Studio to create a Web service named MyWebService. You create a SOAP message that is not secure in the Web service. You want to use the SendSecurityFilter class in the Web service to handle the transmission and securing of SOAP messages. Which of the following code segments will you use  to accomplish the task?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A.
public class MySendSecurityFilter : SendSecurityFilter
{
public MySendSecurityFilter(string service, Boolean client)
{ }
public override void SecureMessage(SoapEnvelope envelope, Security security)
{
// Implement validation here
}
}
B.
public class MySendSecurityFilter : SendSecurityFilter
{
public MySendSecurityFilter(string service, Boolean client)
{
base(service,client);
}
public override void SecureMessage(SoapEnvelope envelope, Security security)
{
// Implement validation here
}
}
C.
public class MySendSecurityFilter : SendSecurityFilter
{
public MySendSecurityFilter(string service, Boolean client) : base(service,client)
{ }
public override void SecureMessage(SoapEnvelope envelope, Security security)
{
// Implement validation here
}
}
D.
public class MySendSecurityFilter : SendSecurityFilter
{
public MySendSecurityFilter(string service, Boolean client) : base(service,client)
{ }
public void SecureMessage(SoapEnvelope envelope, Security security)
{
// Implement validation here
}
}

Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 83
You work as a Windows Application Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its application development platform. You create a Windows Forms application using .NET Framework 3.5. The application contains a data-bound control. You use the
LinqDataSource control to use LINQ in the ASP.NET application by setting properties in markup text. The LinqDataSource control uses LINQ to SQL to automatically generate the data commands. You are required to perform data operations by using the LinqDataSource control. What is the correct order in which data operations are applied?
A.
400-351 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 84
You work as a Software Developer for Hi-Tech Inc. You develop an application using Visual Studio.NET 2005. You create an unregistered COM DLL file named Com1.dll. You want to use this Com1.dll file in your application code. However, Com1.dll needs to be registered in the Windows
Registry before it is used by the application. Which of the following tools will you use to accomplish the task?
A. Wsdl.exe
B. Regsvr32.exe
C. Tlbimp.exe
D. Disco.exe
Answer: B

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Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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QUESTION 80
Which two authentication types does OSPF support? (Choose two.)
A. plaintext
B. MD5
C. HMAC
D. AES 256
E. SHA-1
F. DES
210-260 exam 
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 81
Which statement about personal firewalls is true?
A. They can protect a system by denying probing requests.
B. They are resilient against kernel attacks.
C. They can protect email messages and private documents in a similar way to a VPN.
D. They can protect the network against attacks.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 82
Which two authentication types does OSPF support? (Choose two.)
A. plaintext
B. MD5
C. HMAC
D. AES 256
E. SHA-1
F. DES
210-260 dumps 
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 83
How does a device on a network using ISE receive its digital certificate during the new- device registration process?
A. ISE acts as a SCEP proxy to enable the device to receive a certificate from a central CA server.
B. ISE issues a certificate from its internal CA server.
C. ISE issues a pre-defined certificate from a local database.
D. The device requests a new certificate directly from a central CA.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 84
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
The Admin user is unable to enter configuration mode on a device with the given configuration. What change can you make to the configuration to correct the problem?
A. Remove the autocommand keyword and arguments from the username admin privilege line.
B. Change the Privilege exec level value to 15.
C. Remove the two Username Admin lines.
D. Remove the Privilege exec line.
210-260 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 83
How is peer affinity reset in the CLI for an Interceptor appliance cluster?
A. “peer affinity reset” on all Interceptors
B. “neighbor reset” on all Steelheads
C. “service restart” on all Interceptors
D. “neighbor reset” on all Interceptors
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 84
What is the primary purpose of enabling Multiple Interface Support on the Interceptor?
A. It allows for the ability to support multiple NICs on the Interceptor
B. It allows the Interceptor appliance to communicate with Steelhead appliances and other Interceptor appliances via more than one In-path interface
C. It allows the Interceptor appliance to communicate via Multicast to In-path interfaces on the Steelhead appliances
D. It allows the Interceptor appliance to be managed by In-path interfaces as well as the Primary interface
210-260 vce 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 85
The primary purpose of setting proxies (found on Networking Proxies) on the Interceptor is to:
A. Allow for a Web or FTP proxy when specifying a URL on the Management Console or CLI
B. Allow for another Interceptor to redirect on behalf of the current Interceptor
C. Allow for Steelhead appliances to dynamically handle the load of another Steelhead appliance
D. Allow for two Interceptor appliances to act redundantly in a serial configuration
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 86
Refer to the exhibit.

210-260 dumps

What does the term resyncing mean?
A. All Interceptor appliances have been connected and the appliances are transferring connection information
B. All Interceptor appliances and all Steelhead appliances have been connected and the appliances are transferring connection information
C. The connection has been established and the Interceptor appliance is transferring its state information
D. The connection has been established and the devices are transferring their state information
210-260 exam 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 87
Peer affinity is most closely related to:
A. Parallel Interceptor redirection based on Sport ID and client IP
B. Serial Interceptor redirection based on Sport ID to server
C. Segstore ID Steelhead mapping based on Sport ID of Steelhead appliances
D. The shipyard from which Riverbed is most likely to ship Interceptors
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 88
For a new connection, an Interceptor appliance has no peer affinity, which Steelhead appliance will the Interceptor appliance choose for the connection?
A. The Interceptor appliance selects the Steelhead appliance with the least connections
B. The Interceptor appliance selects the Steelhead that has the most connections
C. The Interceptor appliance selects the most loaded Steelhead appliance
D. The Interceptor appliance selects the Steelhead appliance with the most peer affinity
210-260 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 89
For a new connection, a Load Balancing rule matches but none of the target Steelhead appliances in the
rule are available. What will happen to the new connection?
A. The connection is passed through
B. The next rule in the list is examined
C. The Interceptor appliance triggers an alarm
D. The Interceptor appliance discontinues redirecting any new connections and places this rule in admissions control
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 90
By default, which Steelhead appliances are placed in an Interceptor appliance’s auto pool?
A. All Steelhead appliances in the network
B. Peer-neighbor Steelhead appliances as targets in one Load Balancing rule
C. Peer-neighbor Steelhead appliances not assigned as targets in any Load Balancing rule
D. Peer-neighbor Steelhead appliances assigned to all current Load Balancing rules
210-260 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 91
The purpose of Intelligent Forwarding is to:
A. Automatically detect Steelhead appliances in the network
B. Help prevent network loops

C. Assist in the creation of static routes on the Interceptor appliance
D. Preclude the need for proper routing
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 92
The Interceptor appliance will attempt to redirect a connection to a Steelhead appliance in the auto pool:
A. When no user defined Load Balancing rules matches AND peer neighbors are defined
B. When no user defined Load Balancing rules matches AND no peer neighbors are defined
C. When no peer Interceptor appliances are defined
D. When a user-defined Load Balancing rule matches AND a target Steelhead appliance is available
210-260 vce 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 93
The Interceptor appliance cluster can support how many optimized connections?
A. 50,000
B. 100,000
C. 200,000
D. More than 200,000
Correct Answer: D
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Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals
Q&As: 80

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QUESTION NO: 11
You are managing an AdWords campaign for your organization. You have two assistants who
work with you to manage several ads through the Google AdWords Editor. You’d like to leave
comments to items in the AdWords Editor to help communicate changes, inform your assistants,

and allow them to respond to your queries. What’s the correct path to leave a comment on an item
in Google AdWords Editor?
A. You can’t leave comments directly on items in Google AdWords Editor. You can attach items,
such as .txt or .doc items to leave notes.
B. You can add comments to items in Google AdWords Editor. Select the item in Google AdWords
Editor and click Add Comment at the bottom of the tab.
C. You can’t leave comments directly on items in Google AdWords Editor. You can use a Notepad
document (or any document in .txt format) and attach it to items.
D. You can add comments to items in Google AdWords Editor. Select the item in Google AdWords
Editor and click Insert Comment from the Extras column.
210-250 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 12
You are a Google AdWords professional explaining how your client should create a budget for
their Google AdWords campaign. The client is confused how Google AdWords determines the
lowest possible value for the highest position of the ad. You explain that Google AdWords uses a
combination of the Quality Score and the CPC bid. The customer still isn’t satisfied and wants a
more in-depth explanation. Which of the following is the best description how Google AdWords
determines ad ranks in search pages?
A. Google AdWords will divide the Ad Rank of the ad showing above you by your Quality Score,
then round off to the nearest cent.
B. Google AdWords will divide the Ad Rank of the average bid of all ads competing you’re your
keywords by your Quality Score, then round off to the nearest cent.
C. Google AdWords will divide the Ad Rank of the ad showing beneath you by your Quality Score,
then round off to the nearest cent.
D. Google AdWords considers whoever bids the highest for a keyword and then that person
moves to the top of the order.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 13
You are a consultant for a wedding photographer, and you’re helping her with her Google
AdWords account. The photographer doesn’t understand why her ad for the Google Network
hasn’t started generating traffic yet. You explain that the ad has just been created, and that there
are three qualifications for the ad to go live. Which of the following is NOT one of the three
qualifications for an ad to go live on the Google Network?

A. The ad must be prepaid for thirty days.
B. The ad must meet the partner requirements.
C. The ad must be opted into the Google Network.
D. The ad must be reviewed and approved.
210-250 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 14
Jerry has downloaded and installed the Google AdWords editor. He manages many ads for his
company, but the web address for his company is changing. He needs a way to quickly and
accurately edit the destination URL for his company’s Google AdWords ads, without having to edit
them each, individually. What’s the best way for Jerry to edit the entire destination domain for his
company?
A. Because Google needs to approve destination URL changes, Jerry will have to use the online
Google AdWords editor, and wait for Google’s approval.
B. Jerry can do this through Google AdWords editor and the Campaign Manager.
C. Jerry can do this through the Google AdWords editor through Campaign Manager;by choosing
all campaigns and then editing the domain URL for all campaigns.
D. Jerry can do this through the Google AdWords editor, with the Advanced Editing Tools and the
Advanced URL Changes option
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 15
Henry has been running Google AdWords for the past six months. He has a good clickthrough
rate, but he feels that his sales aren’t in proportion to the clickthrough rate he’s receiving. Henry
wants to optimize his site, but he wants to identify where he’s losing visitors on the way to
conversion. Which Google Analytics report could Henry run, to help identify this trend and show
optimization opportunities?
A. Top exit pages report
B. Site overlay report
C. Top landing pages report
D. Funnel visualization report
210-250 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 16
Gary is explaining the process of the Google Search Query to his manager. Gary states that the
pages that Google believes is important will show up higher in the organic search results. What
term should Gary actually use to describe the order of search results by Google?
A. Indexing Technology
B. Hypertext-Matching Analysis
C. PageRank Technology
D. Organic search listings
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 17
If you open your Google AdWords account and want to see instant insights into your account’s
performance, where would you look?
A. Account Statistics
B. Reports
C. CTR
D. Google Analytics
210-250 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 18
Charlie sells merchandise online for movie products. His new line of products that he wants to
advertise is related to Iron Man. Charlie would like to create an embedded match keyword
targeting ad for his Iron Man products, without his ad showing up for the exact match of the movie
Iron Man. Which one of the following would allow Charlie’s ads to appear for Iron Man Cards and
Iron Man Collectibles, but not for the exact match of Iron Man?
A. +[“Iron Man”]
B. -[Iron Man]
C. (“Iron Man”)
D. {Iron Man}
Answer: B

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Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Q&As: 118

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QUESTION NO: 38
In order to successfully register and configure a new entity capable of being saved and loaded
from the database, you must create a model and which three of the following? (Choose three)
A. collection class
B. Configuration settings in your module’s config.xrnl
C. An entry in Mage:: $_registry
D. A record in the eav_entity table
E. A resource model
F. A table in the database that will store the entity’s data
300-135 exam Answer: B,E,F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 39
Which object never encapsulates any shopping cart items?
A. Mage_Checkout_Model_Cart
B. Mage_Sales_Model_Quote
C. Mage_Sales_Model_Quote_Address<type=shipping>
D. Mage_Sales_Model_Quote_Address<type=billing>
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 40
Which table is used for calculating a new increment ID for an order?
A. sales_flat_order_increment
B. eav_entity_store
C. core_increment
D. core_config_data
300-135 dumps Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 41
Which of the following will NOT generate a <script> tag in the output of the standard Magento
page/html_head block?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 42
How many items will be added to the quote after adding a configurable product to the shopping
cart?

A. The number of options
B. The number of options+1
C. Always 1
D. Always 2
300-135 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 43
Which three of the following statements accurately describe differences between EAV and Flat
catalogs when accessing child categories of a category? (Choose three)
A. A different method must be used to get the child categories if flat catalog is enabled.
B. The type of the results differs between EAV and flat catalog.
C. Results also include children of children if flat catalog is enabled.
D. Results contain more information for each child if flat catalog is disabled.
E. The children’s IDs of EAV and Flat tables are different.
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 44
Which two of the following are supported in the native Magento API? (Choose two)
A. Partial void
B. Partial invoice
C. Partial capture
D. Partial refund
E. Partial shipment
300-135 vce Answer: B,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 45
Which one of the following API methods exists in Magento?
A. catalog_category.save
B. catalog_product,items
C. catalog_product_attribute_set.update
D. catalog_product.info
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 46
Which module is responsible for Store Credit functionality in the native Magento?
A. Enterprise/StoreCredit
B. Enterprise/CustomerBalance
C. Enterprise/Sales
D. Enterprise/Customer
300-135 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 47
You want to implement a custom attribute source model. Which method do you have to implement
after extending Mage_Eav_Model_Entity_Attribute_Source_Abstract?
A. getOptionText()
B. getAHOptions ()
C. getOptionHash()
D. getOptionld()
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 48
Which one of the following declares a Layout XML file?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
300-135 dumps Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION 49
Which of the following describes risk proximity?
A. The timeframe over which the risk mitigation actions should be implemented
B. The schedule for the risk management activities related to a plan
C. The timeframe over which a risk will be monitored by the risk owner
D. The timeframe for when the risk might materialize
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 50
Which statement describes risk cause?
A. The impact of a risk on the stage and project tolerance
B. The situation or event that gave rise to a risk
C. The area of uncertainty in terms of the threat or opportunity
D. How likely a risk is to occur in a given project situation
300-135 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 51
What is the purpose of the risk budget?
A. To fund risk management activities defined in the risk management procedure
B. To fund the cost of analyzing requests for change while executing a Work Package
C. Funds set aside from the project budget to cover the costs of implementing risk responses
D. Funds set aside from the project budget to cover the costs of identifying risks to the project
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 52
Which of the following are valid risk responses for threats?
A. Accept, Enhance, Transfer
B. Avoid, Enhance, Fallback
C. Avoid, Accept, Fallback
D. Exploit, Accept, Fallback
300-135 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
Identify the missing word in the following sentence… A risk consists of a combination of the of a perceived
threat or opportunity occurring and the magnitude of its impact on objectives.
A. Outcome

B. Probability
C. Dis-benefit
D. Proximity
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 54
What is the goal of the ‘identify context’ step as part of the risk management procedure?
A. Identify responses to risks identified in the Business Case
B. Gather information about the project environment and objectives
C. Gather information about risks for inclusion in Highlight Reports to the Project Board
D. Identify the threats and opportunities that may affect the project’s objectives
300-135 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 55
Which statement best describes the responsibilities of a risk actionee?
A. Identifying risks to the project that might occur in their department
B. Owning and authorizing the use of the risk budget to fund risk responses
C. Managing, monitoring and controlling of all aspects of an assigned risk
D. Carrying out a risk response action to respond to a particular risk
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 56
Which is NOT a recommended response type to respond to a threat?
A. Avoid
B. Reject
C. Share
D. Transfer
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 57
Which of the following Plans are approved by the Project Manager?
A. Project Plan
B. Team Plan
C. Exception Plan
D. Stage Plan
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 58
Identify the missing word(s) in the following sentence… The [?] is used by the Project Manager to capture
and maintain information on all of the identified threats and opportunities relating to the project.
A. Risk Register
B. Risk Management Strategy
C. Issue Register
D. Risk owner
300-135 pdf Correct Answer: A

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