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CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Exam

CompTIA Network+ helps develop a career in IT infrastructure covering troubleshooting, configuring, and managing networks.

CompTIA Network+ N10-007 has been updated and reorganized to address the current networking technologies.

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Practicing: CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Question

QUESTION 1
Which of the following protocols are classified as connectionless? (Select TWO)
A. TFTP
B. FTP
C. HTTP
D. SNMP
E. SSH
F. IMAP
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 2
Kim, a network administrator, should consult which documentation sources FIRST to determine the cause of recent
network issues?
A. Network map
B. Cable management
C. Change management
D. Asset management
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
Joe, an employee at a large regional bank, wants to receive company email on his personal smartphone and table: To
authenticate on the mail server, he must first a custom security application on those mobile services. Which of the
following policies would BEST enforce this requirement?
A. Incident response policy
B. BYOD policy
C. DLP policy
D. Remote access policy
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A network administrator wants to ensure sensitive data is not exfiltrated from the system electronically. Which of the
following should be implemented?
A. DLP
B. AUP
C. NDA
D. SLA
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
A technician is planning a remote-access strategy to manage routers and switches on a dedicated management
network. The management network is segregated from the production network and uses site-to-site VPN connections.
Some of the equipment does not support encryption. Which of the following should the technician choose that all the
equipment would support?
A. Telnet
B. SSL
C. SSH
D. IPSec
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
Joe, a technician, is attempting to resolve an issue with an off-site router remotely. Joe needs to reset the WAN
connection settings and wants to ensure he will have access to the router at all times to monitor the changes.
Which of the following solutions would BEST meet this goal?
A. Use a secure SSH connection over the WAN link.
B. Telnet into the router over the company VPN.
C. Implement a modem on the AUX port.
D. Configure a DSL router to the console port.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A technician has installed an older IP camera as a temporary replacement for a recently failed newer one. The
technician notices that when the camera\\’s video stream is off, the ping roundtrip time between the camera and the
network DVR is consistently less than 1ms without dropped packets. When the camera video stream is turned on, the
ping roundtrip time increases dramatically, and network communication is slow and inconsistent. Which of the following
is MOST likely the issue in this scenario?
A. VLAN mismatch
B. Duplex mismatch
C. Cat 6 RX/TX reversed
D. Damaged cable
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 11
Which of the following WAP security features offers the STRONGEST encryption?
A. WPA
B. WPA2
C. WEP
D. Hidden SSID
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 12
A technician is setting up a public guest network for visitors to access the Internet that must be separate from the
corporate network. Which of the following are the BEST steps for the technician to take with minimum overhead
configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Enable SSID broadcasting to identify the guest network
B. Configure visitor devices to use static IP addresses
C. Enable two-factor authentication on visitor devices
D. Configure the access point to use WPA2-AES encryption
E. Ensure the access point is not running in mixed mode
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 13
Zach, a technician, needs to terminate a CAT5e Ethernet cable to a 110 block. Which of the following tools should he
use?
A. Toner probe
B. Punch down
C. Wire tester
D. Crimper
Correct Answer: B

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CompTIA XK0-004 exam questions and answers 1-13

QUESTION 1
A Linux administrator needs the “tech” account to have the option to run elevated commands as root. Which of the
following commands would BEST meet this goal?
A. $ su -tech -c “/bin/bash”
B. # usermod -aG wheel tech
C. # sudo -I tech
D. # groupadd -u tech -g root
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
A systems administrator wants to deploy several applications to the same server quickly. Each application should be
abstracted from the host with its own dependencies and libraries and utilize a minimal footprint. Which of the following
would be BEST in this scenario?
A. Virtual machines
B. Type 2 hypervisor
C. Chroot jails
D. Containers
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
A user, jsmith, needs access to database files located on a server. Which of the following will add jsmith to the “dba”
group and preserve existing group memberships?
A. usermod -a -G dba jsmith
B. usermod -g dba jsmith
C. useradd -g dba jsmith
D. groupmod dba -u jsmith
Correct Answer: AC
According to the reference given below. Both AC is correct. Reference: https://www.cyberciti.biz/faq/howto-linux-adduser-to-group/

QUESTION 4
Joe, a user, is unable to log in to the server and contracts the systems administrator to look into the issue. The
administrator examines the /etc/passwd file and discovers the following entry:
joe:x:505:505::/home/joe:/bin/false
Which of the following commands should the administrator execute to resolve the problem?
A. usermod -s /bin/bash joe
B. passwd -u joe
C. useradd -s /bin/bash joe
D. chage -E -1 joe
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://doc.lagout.org/security/McGrawHill%20-%20Hacking%20Exposed%2C%203rd%20Ed%20-%20Hacking%20Exposed%20Win2.pdf (303)

QUESTION 5
A Linux administrator is using a public cloud provider to host servers for a company\\’s website. Using the provider\\’s
tools, the administrator wrote a JSON file to define how to deploy the servers. Which of the following techniques did the
administrator use?
A. Infrastructure as code
B. Build automation
C. Platform as a service
D. Automated configuration
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://cloud.google.com/cloud-build/docs/build-config

QUESTION 6
A Linux administrator opens a ticket to have an external hard drive mounted. As a security policy, external storage
kernel modules are disabled.
Which of the following is the BEST command for adding the proper kernel module to enable external storage modules?
A. rmmod /lib/modules/3.6.12-100-generic/kernel/drivers/usb/storage/usb-storage.ko
B. modinfo /lib/modules/3.6.12-100-generic/kernel/drivers/usb/storage/usb-storage.ko
C. depmod /lib/modules/3.6.12-100-generic/kernel/drivers/usb/storage/usb-storage.ko
D. insmod /lib/modules/3.6.12-100-generic/kernel/drivers/usb/storage/usb-storage.ko
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cyberciti.biz/faq/linux-how-to-load-a-kernel-module-automatically-at-boot-time/

QUESTION 7
A Linux systems administrator is setting up SSH access with PKI for several using their newly created RSA keys. Which
of the following MOST securely achieves this task?
A. Use curl to copy each user\\’s public key file to the respective system
B. Use cp to copy each user\\’s public key file to the respective system
C. Use ssh-copy-id to copy each user\\’s public key file to the respective system
D. Use ssh-copy-id to copy each user\\’s private key file to the respective system
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.linode.com/docs/security/authentication/use-public-key-authentication-with-ssh/

QUESTION 8
A Linux server needs to be accessed, but the root password is not available.
Which of the following would BEST allow an administrator to regain access and set a new known password at the same
time?
A. Boot into a single-user mode and reset the password via the passwd command.
B. Boot into a single-user mode and reset the password by editing the /etc/passwd file.
C. Boot into a single-user mode and reset the password by editing the /etc/shadow file.
D. Boot into a single-user mode and reset the password via the chage command.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://phoenixnap.com/kb/how-to-change-root-password-linux


QUESTION 9
Given the output below:

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Which of the following commands can be used to remove MyPhoto.jpg from the current directory?
A. unlink ./MyPhoto.jpg
B. del Pictures/photo.jpg
C. rm -rf ./Pictures
D. rm -f MyPhoto.jpg
E. ln -rm ./Pictures/photo.jpg
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 10
A technician wants to secure a sensitive workstation by ensuring network traffic is kept within the local subnet. To
accomplish this task, the technician executes the following command:
echo 0 > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_default_ttl
Which of the following commands can the technician use to confirm the expected results? (Choose two.)
A. tcpdump
B. traceroute
C. route
D. iperf
E. ip
F. arp
Correct Answer: CF
 

QUESTION 11
Ann, a junior systems administrator, is required to add a line to the /etc/yum.conf file. However, she receives the
following error message when she tries to add the line:

Testkingone XK0-004 exam questions-q11

Which of the following commands should Ann execute to write content to /etc/yum?
A. chmod 755 /etc/yum.conf
B. setfacl -m m:rw /etc/yum.conf
C. chattr -I /etc/yum.conf
D. setenforce 0
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A Linux server has multiple IPs. A Linux administrator needs to verify if the HTTP server port is bound to the correct IP.
Which of the following commands would BEST accomplish this task?
A. route
B. host
C. nslookup
D. netstat
E. ip
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.tecmint.com/find-listening-ports-linux/

QUESTION 13
A system administrator has deployed a Linux server based on an Anaconda process with all packages and custom
configurations necessary to install a web server role. Which of the following could be used to install more Linux servers
with the same characteristics?
A. /etc/sysconfig/anaconda/cfg
B. /root/anaconda.auto
C. /root/anaconda-ks.cfg
D. /etc/sysconfig/installation.cfg
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://access.redhat.com/documentation/en-us/red_hat_enterprise_linux/6/html/installation_guide/snautomating-installation

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QUESTION 1
You use the Task.Run() method to launch a long-running data processing operation. The data processing operation often fails in times of heavy network congestion. If the data processing operation fails, a second operation must clean up any results of the first operation. You need to ensure that the second operation is invoked only if the data processing operation throws an unhandled exception. What should you do?
A. Create a TaskCompletionSource object and call the TrySetException() method of the object.
B. Create a task by calling the Task.ContinueWith() method.
C. Examine the Task. Status property immediately after the call to the Task.Run() method.
D. Create a task inside the existing Task.Run() method by using the AttachedToParent option.
070-483 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You are modifying an application that processes leases. The following code defines the Lease class. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
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Leases are restricted to a maximum term of 5 years. The application must send a notification message if a lease request exceeds 5 years. You need to implement the notification mechanism. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose two.)
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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
F. Option F
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
You are developing an application that uses structured exception handling. The application includes a class named ExceptionLogger. The ExceptionLogger class implements a method named LogException by using the following code segment: public static void LogException(Exception ex) You have the following requirements: Log all exceptions by using the LogException() method of the ExceptionLogger class. Rethrow the original exception, including the entire exception stack. You need to meet the requirements. Which code segment should you use?
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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
70-483 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You are developing an application that includes a class named UserTracker. The application includes the following code segment. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
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You need to add a user to the UserTracker instance. What should you do?
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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You are adding a public method named UpdateScore to a public class named ScoreCard. The code region that updates the score field must meet the following requirements: It must be accessed by only one thread at a time. It must not be vulnerable to a deadlock situation. You need to implement the UpdateScore() method. What should you do?
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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
070-483 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You are developing a C# application that has a requirement to validate some string input data by using the Regex class. The application includes a method named ContainsHyperlink. The ContainsHyperlink() method will verify the presence of a URI and surrounding markup. The following code segment defines the ContainsHyperlink() method. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
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The expression patterns used for each validation function are constant. You need to ensure that the expression syntax is evaluated only once when the Regex object is initially instantiated. Which code segment should you insert at line 04?
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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
You are developing an application by using C#.
You have the following requirements:
Support 32-bit and 64-bit system configurations.
Include pre-processor directives that are specific to the system configuration. Deploy an application version that includes both system configurations to testers. Ensure that stack traces include accurate line numbers. You need to configure the project to avoid changing individual configuration settings every time you deploy the application to testers. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose two.)
A. Update the platform target and conditional compilation symbols for each application configuration.
B. Create two application configurations based on the default Release configuration.
C. Optimize the application through address rebasing in the 64-bit configuration.
D. Create two application configurations based on the default Debug configuration.
070-483 vce Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
You are developing a method named CreateCounters that will create performance counters for an application. The method includes the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
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You need to ensure that Counter1 is available for use in Windows Performance Monitor (PerfMon). Which code segment should you insert at line 16?
A. CounterType = PerformanccCounterType.RawBase
B. CounterType = PerformanceCounterType.AverageBase
C. CounterType = PerformanceCounterType.SampleBase
D. CounterType = PerformanceCounterType.CounterMultiBase
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
You are developing an application that will transmit large amounts of data between a client computer and a server. You need to ensure the validity of the data by using a cryptographic hashing algorithm. Which algorithm should you use?
A. HMACSHA256
B. RNGCryptoServiceProvider
C. DES
D. Aes
070-483 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You are developing an assembly that will be used by multiple applications. You need to install the assembly in the Global Assembly Cache (GAC).
Which two actions can you perform to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Use the Assembly Registration tool (regasm.exe) to register the assembly and to copy the assembly to the GAC.
B. Use the Strong Name tool (sn.exe) to copy the assembly into the GAC.
C. Use Microsoft Register Server (regsvr32.exe) to add the assembly to the GAC.
D. Use the Global Assembly Cache tool (gacutil.exe) to add the assembly to the GAC.
E. Use Windows Installer 2.0 to add the assembly to the GAC.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 11
You are debugging an application that calculates loan interest. The application includes the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
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You need to ensure that the debugger breaks execution within the CalculateInterest() method when the loanAmount variable is less than or equal to zero in all builds of the application. What should you do?
A. Insert the following code segment at line 03: Trace.Assert(loanAmount > 0);
B. Insert the following code segment at line 03: Debug.Assert(loanAmount > 0);
C. Insert the following code segment at line 05: Debug.Write(loanAmount > 0);
D. Insert the following code segment at line 05: Trace.Write(loanAmount > 0);
70-483 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
You are developing an application that accepts the input of dates from the user. Users enter the date in their local format. The date entered by the user is stored in a string variable named inputDate. The valid date value must be placed in a DateTime variable named validatedDate. You need to validate the entered date and convert it to Coordinated Universal Time (UTC). The code must not cause an exception to be thrown. Which code segment should you use?
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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You are developing an application by using C#. You provide a public key to the development team during development. You need to specify that the assembly is not fully signed when it is built. Which two assembly attributes should you include in the source code? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. AssemblyKeyNameAttribute
B. ObfuscateAssemblyAttribute
C. AssemblyDelaySignAttribute
D. AssemblyKeyFileAttribute
070-483 pdf Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 14
You are adding a public method named UpdateGrade to a public class named ReportCard. The code region that updates the grade field must meet the following requirements:
It must be accessed by only one thread at a time.
It must not be vulnerable to a deadlock situation.
You need to implement the UpdateGrade() method. What should you do?
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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A

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Skills measured
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. View video tutorials about the variety of question types on Microsoft exams. Please note that the questions may test on, but will not be limited to, the topics described in the bulleted text. Do you have feedback about the relevance of the skills measured on this exam? Please send Microsoft your comments. All feedback will be reviewed and incorporated as appropriate while still maintaining the validity and reliability of the certification process. Note that Microsoft 70-470 exam will not respond directly to your feedback. We appreciate your input in ensuring the quality of the Microsoft Certification program.
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Build an analysis services multidimensional database
Implement a cube
Use SQL Server Data Tools – Business Intelligence (SSDT-BI) to build the cube; use SSDT-BI to do non-additive or semi-additive measures in a cube, define measures, specify perspectives, define translations, define dimension usage, define cube-specific dimension properties, define measure groups, implement reference dimensions, implement many-to-many relationships, implement fact relationships, implement role-playing relationships, create and manage linked measure groups and linked dimensions, create actions 70-470 exam
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Select an appropriate model for data analysis
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Question: 1
You need to deploy the StandardReports project.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Deploy the project from SQL Server Data Tools (SSDT).
B. Use the Analysis Services Deployment utility to create an XMLA deployment script.
C. Use the Analysis Services Deployment wizard to create an MDX deployment script.
D. Use the Analysis Services Deployment wizard to create an XMLA deployment script.
Answer: AD

Explanation:
There are several methods you can use to deploy a tabular model project. Most of the deployment methods that can be used for other Analysis Services projects, such as multidimensional, can also be used to deploy tabular model projects.
A:  Deploy command in SQL Server Data Tools
The Deploy command provides a simple and intuitive method to deploy a tabular model project from the SQL Server Data Tools authoring environment.
Caution:
This method should not be used to deploy to production servers. Using this method can overwrite certain properties in an existing model.
D: The Analysis Services Deployment Wizard uses the XML output files generated from a Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Services project as input files. These input files are easily modifiable to customize the deployment of an Analysis Services project. The generated deployment script can then either be immediately run or saved for later deployment.
Incorrect:
not B: The Microsoft.AnalysisServices.Deployment utility lets you start the Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Services deployment engine from the command prompt. As input file, the utility uses the XML output files generated by building an Analysis Services project in SQL Server Data Tools (SSDT)

Question: 2
You need to create the hierarchy in the AdhocReports project in time for the next production release cycle.
What should you do?
A. Multi-select all of the columns, right-click the columns, and then click the Create Hierarchy command. Check in the changes before the next release cycle.
B. Use the RELATED() function to consolidate the columns in the DimSalesTerritory table, multi-select the columns, right-click the columns, and then click the Create Hierarchy command. Check in the changes before the next release cycle.
C. Use the RELATEDTABLEQ function to consolidate the tables, multi-select the columns in the hierarchy, right-click the columns, and then click the Create Hierarchy command. Check in the changes before the next release cycle.
D. Use the RELATED() function to consolidate the columns in the DimEmployee table, multi-select the columns, right-click the columns, and then click the Create Hierarchy command. Check in the changes before the next release cycle.
Answer: D  600-199 dumps

Manage, maintain, and troubleshoot a SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) database
Process data models
Define processing of tables or partitions for tabular and multidimensional models; define processing of databases, cubes, and dimensions for multidimensional models; select full processing versus incremental processing; define remote processing; define lazy aggregations; automate with Analysis Management Objects (AMO) or XML for Analysis (XMLA); process and manage partitions by using PowerShell
70-470 exam Install and maintain an SSAS instance
Install SSAS; install development tools; identify development and production installation considerations; upgrade SSAS instance; define data file and program file location; plan for Administrator accounts; define server and database level security; support scale-out read-only; update SSAS (service packs); install and maintain each instance type of Analysis Services, including PowerPivot; restore and import PowerPivot; back up and restore by using PowerShell. https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-470.html

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070-480 exam

Exam Code: 070-480
Exam Name: Microsoft (Programming in HTML5 with JavaScript and CSS3)
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Total Q&A: 169 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-21
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NO.1 You are developing a customer web form that includes the following HTML.
<label id=”txtValue”X/label> Information from the web form is submitted to a web service. The web
service
returns the following JSON object.
{ “Confirmation”: “1234”, “FirstName”: “John”}
You need to display the Confirmation number from the JSON response in the txtValue label field.
Which JavaScript code segment should you use?
A. $(“#txtValue”).val = (JSONObject.Confirmation);
B. $(“#txtValue”).val(JSONObject.Confirmation);
C. $(“#txtValue”).text = (JSONObject.Confirmation);
D. $(“#txtValue”).text(JSONObject.Confirmation);
Answer:D

NO.2 You are developing a customer web form that includes the following HTML.

<input id=”txtValue” type=”text” />
A customer must enter a valid age in the text box prior to submitting the form.
You need to add validation to the control.
Which code segment should you use?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer:D

NO.3 You are developing a customer contact form that will be displayed on a page of a company’s
website. The page collects information about the customer. If a customer enters a value before
submitting the form, it must be a valid email address. You need to ensure that the data validation
requirement is met. What should you use?
A. <input name=”email” type=”url”/>
B. <input name=”email” type=”text” required=”required”/>
C. <input name=”email” type=”text”/>
D. <input name=”email” type=”email”/>
Answer:D

O.4 You are developing a web page that enables customers to upload documents to a web server.
The
page includes an HTML5 PROGRESS element named progressBar that displays information about the
status of the upload. The page includes the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference
only.)
An event handler must be attached to the request object to update the PROGRESS element on the
page.
You need to ensure that the status of the upload is displayed in the progress bar. Which line of code
should you insert at line 03?
A. xhr.upload.onloadeddata =
B. xhr.upload.onplaying =
C. xhr.upload.onseeking =
D. xhr.upload.onprogress =
Answer:D

NO.5 You are developing a customer web form that includes the following HTML.
<input id.”txtValue” /> A customer must enter a value in the text box prior to submitting the form.
You need
to add validation to the text box control. Which HTML should you use?
A. <input id=”txtValue” type=”text” required=”required”/>
B. <input id=”txtValue” type=”text” pattern=”[A-Za-z]{3}” />
C. <input id=”txtValue” type=”required” />
D. <input id=”txtValue” type=”required” autocomplete=”on” />
Answer:A

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QUESTION 56
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a single domain. The domain contains two domain controllers named DC1 and DC2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. The domain contains a user named User1 and a global security group named Group1. User1 logs on to a client computer named Computer1. You need to disable the computer account of Computer1. Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Add-AdPrincipalGroupMembership
B. Install-AddsDomainController
C. Install WindowsFeature
D. Install AddsDomain
E. Rename-AdObject
F. Set-AdAccountControl
G. Set-AdGroup
H. Set-User
Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 57
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a single domain. The domain contains two domain controllers named DC1 and DC2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. The domain contains a user named User1 and a global security group named Group1. You reconfigure DC2 as a member server in the domain. You need to add DC2 as the first domain controller in a new domain in the forest. Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Add-AdPrincipalGroupMembership
B. Install-AddsDomainController
C. Install WindowsFeature
D. Install AddsDomain
E. Rename-AdObject
F. Set-AdAccountControl
G. Set-AdGroup
H. Set-User
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the Hyper-V server role installed. You create an external virtual switch named Switch1. Switch1 has the following configurations:
-Connection type: External network
-Single-root I/O visualization (SR-IOV): Enabled
-Ten virtual machines connect to Switch1.
You need to ensure that all of the virtual machines that connect to Switch1 are isolated from the external network and can connect to each other only. The solution must minimize network downtime for the virtual machines. What should you do?
A. Change the Connection type of Switch1 to Internal network.
B. Change the Connection type of Switch1 to Private network.
C. Remove Switch1 and recreate Switch1 as an internal network.
D. Remove Switch1 and recreate Switch1 as a private network.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 59
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. VM1 has several snapshots. You need to modify the snapshot file location of VM1. What should you do?
A. Right-click VM1, and then click Export…
B. Modify the Hyper-V settings.
C. Delete the existing snapshots, and then modify the settings of VM1.
D. Shut down VM1, and then modify the settings of VM1.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 60
You have a server that runs a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to change the DNS server used by IPv6. What should you do?
A. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set-NetIpv6Protocol cmdlet.
B. From Sconfig, configure the Network Settings.
C. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set-DnsClientServerAddresscmdlet.
D. Run the sc.exe command and specify the config parameter.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 61
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You plan to create a storage pool that will contain a new volume. You need to create a new 600-GB volume by using thin provisioning. The new volume must use the parity layout. What is the minimum number of 256-GB disks required for the storage pool?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 62
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You try to install the Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5 Features feature on Server1, but the installation fails repeatedly. You need to ensure that the feature can be installed on Server1. What should you do?
A. Install the Web Server (IIS) server role.
B. Run the Add-WindowsPackagecmdlet.
C. Run the Add-AppxProvisionedPackagecmdlet.
D. Connect Server1 to the Internet.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 63
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains two domains named contoso.com and child.contoso.com. The forest contains two domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.

You need to ensure that DC2 can provide authoritative responses for queries to the contoso.com namespace. What should you do?
A. On DC1, create a delegation.
B. On DC1, change the replication scope of the contoso.com zone.
C. On DC2, create a forwarder.
D. On DC2, modify the Zone Transfers settings.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 64
You are configuring the IPv6 network infrastructure for a branch office. The corporate network administrator allocates the 2001:DB8:0:C000::/58 address space for use in the branch office. You need to identify the maximum number of IPv6 subnets you can create. How many IPv6 subnets should you identify?
A. 32
B. 64
C. 128
D. 1024
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 65
You have a print server named Server1. You install a printer on Server1. You share the printer as Printer1. You need to configure Printer1 to be available only from 19:00 to 05:00 every day. Which settings from the properties of Printer1 should you modify?
A. Device Settings
B. Advanced
C. Security
D. Ports
E. Sharing
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 66
You have two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the DHCP Server server role installed. You need to create an IPv6 reservation for Server2. Which two values should you obtain from Server2? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. the hardware ID
B. the DHCPv6 unique identifier
C. the DHCPv6 identity association ID
D. the SMSBIOS GUID
E. the MAC address
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 67
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two member servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. You log on to Server1. You need to retrieve a list of the active TCP connections on Server2. Which command should you run from Server1?
A. winrm get server2
B. dsquery * -scope base -attrip,server2
C. winrs -r:server2netstat
D. netstat> server2
Correct Answer: C

70-410 study guide
QUESTION 68
You have a server named Server1 that has the Print and Document Services server role installed. You need to provide users with the ability to manage print jobs
on Server1 by using a web browser.
What should you do?

A. Start the Computer Browser service and set the service to start automatically.
B. Install the LPD Service role service.
C. Install the Internet Printing role service.
D. Start the Printer Extensions and Notifications service and set the service to start automatically.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 69
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You plan to create a shared folder. The shared folder will have a quota limit. You discover that when you run the New Share Wizard, you cannot select the SMB Share Advanced option. You need to ensure that you can use SMB Share – Advanced to create the new share. What should you do on Server1 before you run the New Share Wizard?
A. Configure the Advanced system settings.
B. Run the Install-WindowsFeaturecmdlet.
C. Run the Set-SmbSharecmdlet.
D. Install the Share and Storage Management tool.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 70
Your network contains two Active Directory forests named contoso.com and adatum.com. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. A one-way external trust exists between contoso.com and adatum.com. Adatum.com contains a universal group named Group1. You need to prevent Group1 from being used to provide access to the resources in contoso.com. What should you do?
A. Change the scope of Group1 to domain local.
B. Modify the Allowed to Authenticate permissions in adatum.com.
C. Enable SID quarantine on the trust between contoso.com and adatum.com.
D. Modify the Allowed to Authenticate permissions in contoso.com.
Correct Answer: B Exam D

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Exam 70-410: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012

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400-201 CCIE Service Provider
Certification: CCIE Service Provider
Duration: 120 minutes (90 – 110 questions)

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Cisco CCIE Service Provider 400-201 test practice test

QUESTION 1
Which two features must be configured to perform AToM NSF? (Choose two)
A. FRR
B. SSO
C. distribute CEF
D. switch virtual path
E. graceful restart
Correct Answer: BE
Before you configure AToM NSF, you need to configure MPLS LDP Graceful Restart. MPLS LDP GR is enabled
globally. When you enable LDP GR, it has no effect on existing LDP sessions. LDP GR is enabled for new sessions that
are established after the feature has been globally enabled.
How AToM NSF Works AToM NSF improves the availability of the network of the service provider that uses AToM to
provide Layer 2 VPN services. HA provides the ability to detect failures and handle them with minimal disruption to the
service being provided. AToM NSF is achieved by SSO and NSF mechanisms. A standby RP provides control-plane
redundancy. The control plane state and data plane provisioning information for the attachment circuits (ACs) and AToM
pseudowires (PWs) are checkpointed to the standby RP to provide NSF for AToM L2VPNs.

QUESTION 2
An Enterprise XYZ company has a requirement to extend the MPLS/Layer 3 VPN MAN network to the remote branches
using Internet as the transport. Which solution can you provide seamless extension of the MPLS/Layer 3 VPN?
A. LISP
B. L2TPv3
C. Cisco Unified MPLS
D. 2547oDMVPN
E. Carrier Supporting Carrier
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

Pass4itsure Cisco 400-201 exam questions q3

An inter-AS VPN between ISP-A and ISP-B is being deployed to support end-to-end connectivity for CE-1 and CE-2.
For scalability reasons, the ASBR routers cannot exchange VPN routes for CE-1 and CE-2.
Which two configurations are needed to support this requirement? (Choose two.)
A. one VRF on the ASBRs for each CE
B. send-labels on the ASBRs
C. address-family VPNv4 on the ASBRs
D. ebgp-multihop between the PEs
E. ebgp-multihop between the ASBRs
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 4
Which BGP feature protects the external BGP peering session from CPU utilization-based attacks that use forged IP
packets?
A. BGP multihop
B. TTL security check
C. BGP FlowSpec
D. Secure BGP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5

Pass4itsure Cisco 400-201 exam questions q5

Refer to the exhibit. Which solution is implemented?
A. BGP LS
B. BGP IP FRR
C. BGP PIC edge D. BGP FlowSpec
E. BGP PIC core
F. loop-free alternate
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which descriptions of Netflow is correct? (Choose three.)
A. By default,Netflow records bidirectional IP traffic flow.
B. Netflow answers questions regarding IP traffiC. who, what, where, when, and how
C. Netflow accounts for both transit traffic and traffic destined for the router.
D. Netflow returns the subinterface information in the flow records.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 7
When an MPLS Layer 2 VPN runs in the hub-and-spoke model, where is QoS implemented?
A. hub and spoke
B. PE
C. CE
D. hub
E. spoke
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which carrier-grade IPv6 technology helps with IPv4 address depletion?
A. dual stack and NAT444
B. NAT444 and 6RD
C. NAT444 and DS-Lite
D. 6RD and DS-Lite
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
In which Cisco IOS configuration mode is the route distinguisher (RD) configured?
A. R1(config-route-at)#
B. R1(config-route-map)#
C. R1(config-it)#
D. R1(config-vrf)#
E. R1(config)#
F. R1(router)#
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Drag and drop the characteristics of the MVPN on the left onto the correct MVPN profile on the right.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure Cisco 400-201 exam questions q10

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Cisco 400-201 exam questions q10-2

QUESTION 11
Which three of these are major components of an MPLS VPN network? (Choose three)
A. LDP notification
B. L2TPv3 session
C. VPN route target communities
D. Multiprotocol BGP peering of PE routers
E. MPLS forwarding
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 12
In MPLS-enabled networks, which two improvements does EVPN provide compared to traditional VPLS solutions?
(Choose two)
A. use of BGP as a control-plane protocol
B. use of LDP to allocate EVPN-related labels
C. optimized learning and flooding process
D. leveraging of enhanced VFIs to provide greater scalability
E. per-flow load balancing
F. no need for exchange of MAC reachability between PEs
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 13
Which statement about OSPFv3 is true?
A. OSPFv3 runs on per subnet basis instead of per-link.
B. OSPFv3 instance ID is only locally significant.
C. OSPFv3 authentication is performed using the authentication field in the OSPFv3 packet header.
D. OSPFv3 neighbor discovery messages can be sourced only from link-local addresses.
Correct Answer: D

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Change

RS exit stake in history stage, RS direction changed to Enterprise direction, existing RS certification automatically upgraded to enterprise infrastructure certification after the release of new certification.

Design direction changed to DevNet direction, CCDA to DevNet Associate, CCDP to DevNet Professional.

The next generation CCIE is still valid for 3 years, but more than 3 years only need to choose to re-test the written test to activate, no need to test LAB activation.

Ten-year honor CCIE changed to 20-year honor CCIE That’s what’s in today’s Cisco workshop, six years of precipitation for the next generation of networking system changes.

CCIE Change

Cisco CCIE Service Provider 2020

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Cisco Collaboration Servers and Appliances Role 500-325 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which purpose of the Call Service Connect of Cisco Spark Hybrid is true?
A. It makes Cisco Spark aware of calls placed between VCS devices
B. It integrates Cisco Spark with Cisco UCM to connect calls
C. It integrates Cisco Spark with Cisco VCS to connect calls
D. It makes Cisco Spark aware of calls placed between UCM, or between HCS, devices
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collaboration/webex-hybrid-services/call-service.html

 

QUESTION 2
Which appliance comes with Cisco UC Virtualization Hypervisor Plus software?
A. BE4000
B. BE6000
C. 3rd-party Specs-based server
D. BE7000
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/BE6000/InstallationGuide/11_6/cucm_b_install-guide-cbe-6000-hm/cucm_b_install-guide-cbe-6000-hm_chapter_010.html#CUCM_TK_AD1A939F_00

 

QUESTION 3
Which software is an eDelivery, field-uploaded license?
A. Cisco TelePresence Virtualization
B. Cisco UC Virtualization Hypervisor Plus
C. Cisco UC Virtualization Foundation
D. VMware vSphere ESXi
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
In the KVM console, which result occurs if the first default is used and network does not have IPv6 configured?
A. KVM switches to IPv4.
B. KVM prompts the admin to enable IPv6.
C. KVM moves to the next default option listed.
D. KVM fails to launch.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
Which type of processing do DSS applications use to perform operations?
A. Parallel
B. Batch
C. Multiplex
D. Linear
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/servers-unified-computing/ucs-b-series-blade-servers/whitepaper_c11-727827.pdf

 

QUESTION 6
Which features are offered by the Cisco BE4000 appliance?
A. premises-based management
B. cloud-hosted management
C. cloud-hosted server
D. 400 premises-based phones
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/unified-communications/business-edition-4000/datasheet-c78-738497.html

 

QUESTION 7
When deploying an OVA Template, which option is used to allocate storage on demand as data is written to disk?
A. Thick Provisioned (Lazy Zeroed) format
B. Thin Provisioned format
C. Medium Provisioned format
D. Thick Provisioned (Eager Zeroed) format
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-4-esx-vcenter/index.jsp?topic=/com.vmware.vsphere.vmadmin.doc_41/vsp_vm_guide/working_with_ovf_templates/t_import_a_virtual_appliance.html

 

QUESTION 8
Which software changes can be required by Cisco TAC to enable third-party Specs-based solution troubleshooting?
A. Consolidate distributed UC applications.
B. Move all critical VMs to the same host server.
C. Consolidate more VMs onto the same server.
D. Temporarily power-down noncritical VMs.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/voice-unified-communications/unified-communications-system/115955-uc-specs-tshoot-00.pdf (p.6)

 

QUESTION 9
How many collaboration applications does the Cisco BE7000H appliance support?
A. eight or ten
B. nine fixed
C. five to ten
D. four or six
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/unified-communications/business-edition-7000/data-sheet-c78-730649.html

 

QUESTION 10
What is the minimum number of blades you must purchase with the CMS2000 server?
A. 10
B. 4
C. 1
D. 8
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/conferencing/ciscoMeetingServer/Installation/Cisco-Meeting-Server-2000-Installation-Guide.pdf

 

QUESTION 11
Which option is the maximum capacity of a Cisco BE7000 appliance deployment?
A. 10000
B. 5000
C. 1000
D. no enforced limit
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/unified-communications/business-edition-7000/data-sheet-c78-730649.html

 

QUESTION 12
Which guideline for SAN and NAS storage arrays is true?
A. Design your deployment in accordance with the Cisco UCS high availability guideline.
B. Adapters for storage access do not follow hardware rules.
C. Ethernet ports for LAN access and Ethernet ports for storage may only be separate.
D. Cisco UC apps use a 24 kilobyte block size to determine bandwidth needs.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/uc_system/virtualization/virtualization-collaboration-storage-design-requirements.html

 

QUESTION 13
Which option do you use to select menu items in the Console window?
A. stylus
B. keyboard keys
C. voice command
D. mouse pointer
Correct Answer: D

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Exam 98-367: Security fundamentals – Microsoft: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-98-367.aspx
This exam validates that a candidate has fundamental security knowledge and skills. It can serve as a stepping stone to the Microsoft Certified Solutions Associate (MCSA) exams. It is recommended that candidates become familiar with the concepts and the technologies described here by taking relevant training courses. Candidates are expected to have some hands-on experience with Windows Server, Windows-based networking, Active Directory, anti-malware products, firewalls, network topologies and devices, and network ports.

pass4itsure 98-367 exam Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Understand security layers (25–30%)
  • Understand operating system security (35-40%)
  • Understand network security (20–25%)
  • Understand security software (15–20%)

The latest Microsoft MTA 98-367 exam practice questions test your strength

QUESTION 1
You need to prevent unauthorized users from reading a specific file on a portable computer if the portable computer is
stolen.
What should you implement?
A. File-level permissions
B. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
C. Folder-level permissions
D. Distributed File System (DFS)
E. BitLocker
Correct Answer: E
Reference: http://4sysops.com/archives/seven-reasons-why-you-need-bitlocker-hard-drive-encryption-for-your-whole-organization/

 

QUESTION 2
By default, what level of security is set for the Local intranet zone?
A. High-Medium
B. Medium-Low
C. High
D. Low
Correct Answer: B
The default security level of the Local intranet zone is Medium-Low. Internet Explorer (IE) allows configuring different
levels of security for different types of Web sites by segmenting them into the following security zone:
Local Intranet: IE can be configured to detect intranet sites automatically. Users can add Web sites to this zone through
Local Intranet sites dialog box. Protected Mode is not enabled for sites in this zone. The default security level of this
zone
is Medium- Low.
Trusted Sites: Putting sites in the Trusted Sites zone often provide elevated privileges. The default security level for this
zone is Medium. Restricted Sites: Potentially malicious sites are put in this zone. The default security level for this zone
is
High. Protected Mode is enabled by default for sites in this zone. Internet: The sites that are not contained in other
zones are automatically hosted in this zone. Sites in this zone are blocked from viewing private data from other Web
sites. The
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default security level of this zone is Medium-High. Protected Mode is enabled by default for sites in this zone.
The three default security levels are Medium, Medium-High, and High.

 

QUESTION 3
Humongous Insurance is an online healthcare insurance company. During an annual security audit a security firm tests
the strength of the company\\’s password policy and suggests that Humongous Insurance implement password history
policy.
What is the likely reason that the security firm suggests this?
A. Past passwords were easily cracked by the brute force method.
B. Past passwords of users contained dictionary words.
C. Previous password breaches involved use of past passwords.
D. Past passwords lacked complexity and special characters.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
Which of the following types of attack is used to configure a computer to behave as another computer on a trusted
network by using the IP address or the physical address?
A. Distributed denial of service (DDOS) attack
B. Honeypot
C. RIP/SAP Spoofing
D. Identity spoofing
Correct Answer: D
Identity spoofing (IP address spoofing) will occur when the attacker wants to use an IP address of a network, computer,
or network component without being authorized for this task. It allows the unprivileged code to use someone else\\’s
identity, and use their security credentials Answer: B is incorrect. A honey pot is a computer that is used to attract
potential intruders or attackers. It is for this reason that a honey pot has low security permissions. A honey pot is used to
gain information about the intruders and their attack strategies. Answer: C is incorrect. RIP and SAP are used to
broadcast network information in a regular way regardless of no changes in the routing or service tables. RIP/SAP
spoofing method is used to intercept the SAP and RIP broadcasts by using a spoofing modem/router, and then re-
broadcast network information via its own routing table or service table. Answer: A is incorrect. In the distributed denial
of service (DDOS) attack, an attacker uses multiple computers throughout the network that it has previously infected.
Such computers act as zombies and work together to send out bogus messages, thereby increasing the amount of
phony traffic. The major advantages to an attacker of using a distributed denial-of-service attack are that multiple
machines can generate more attack traffic than one machine, multiple attack machines are harder to turn off than one
attack machine, and that the behavior of each attack machine can be stealthier, making it harder to track down and shut
down. TFN, TRIN00, etc. are tools used for the DDoS attack.


QUESTION 5
Keeping a server updated:
A. Maximizes network efficiency
B. Fixes security holes
C. Speeds up folder access
D. Synchronizes the server
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
The company that you work for wants to set up a secure network, but they do not have any servers. Which three
security methods require the use of a server? (Choose three.)
A. 802.1x
B. WPA2 Personal
C. WPA2 Enterprise
D. RADIUS
E. 802.11ac
Correct Answer: ACD

 

QUESTION 7
A mail system administrator scans for viruses in incoming emails to increase the speed of mail processing.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if
the underlined text makes the statement correct.
A. Decrease the chances of a virus getting to a client machine
B. Verify that the senders of the messages are legitimate
C. Ensure that all links in the messages are trustworthy
D. No change is needed.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
Sam works as a Web Developer for McRobert Inc. He wants to control the way in which a Web browser receives
information and downloads content from Web sites. Which of the following browser settings will Sam use to accomplish
this?
A. Security
B. Certificate
C. Cookies
D. Proxy server
Correct Answer: A
The Web browser\\’s Security setting controls the way in which a Web browser receives information and downloads
content from Web sites. In Internet Explorer, users can access the Security setting from Tools menu > Internet Options
>
Security tab page.
Answer: C is incorrect. A cookie is a small bit of text that accompanies requests and pages as they move between Web
servers and browsers. It contains information that is read by a Web application, whenever a user visits a site. Cookies
are
stored in the memory or hard disk of client computers. A Web site stores information, such as user preferences and
settings in a cookie. This information helps in providing customized services to users. There is absolutely no way a
Web
server can access any private information about a user or his computer through cookies, unless a user provides the
information. The Web server cannot access cookies created by other Web servers. Answer: D is incorrect. Proxy server
setting is used to connect to the Internet through a proxy server.

 

QUESTION 9
Mark works as a Systems Administrator for TechMart Incl. The company has Windows-based network. Mark has been
assigned a project to track who tries to log into the system and the time of the day at which the attempts occur. He is
also required to create a system to track when confidential files are opened and who is trying to open it. Now, Mark logs
when someone is not able to make a successful attempt to log into the system as Administrator but he also wants to log
when the user is successful to log into the system as Administrator. Which of the following is the reason of logging by
Mark when a user is successfully logged into the system as well as when he is failed?
A. To determine if and when someone is authenticating successfully with high privilege.
B. To make sure that user is not using the Administrator account.
C. To determine if and when someone is authenticating successfully with high privilege.
D. To make sure that user is not facing any problem.
Correct Answer: C
In the above scenario, Mark is required to determine if and when someone is able to be authenticated successfully with
high privilege as well as the hacker activity. If any user was failed for a number of times and was then successful any
attempt, it can be a hacker activity. That\\’s why Mark logs when a user is successfully logged into the system as well as
when he is failed.


QUESTION 10
You have an application that uses IPsec to secure communications between an Internet client and a server on the
internal network.
To which network security service must the IPsec client connect?
A. SFTP
B. SSH
C. VPN
D. RADIUS
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
Which of the following is a method of capturing and recording computer users\\’ keystrokes including sensitive
passwords?
A. Using hardware keyloggers
B. Using Alchemy Remote Executor
C. Using SocketShield
D. Using Anti-virus software
Correct Answer: A
Hardware keyloggers are used for keystroke logging, a method of capturing and recording computer users\\’ keystrokes,
including sensitive passwords. They can be implemented via BIOS-level firmware, or alternatively, via a device plugged
inline between a computer keyboard and
a computer. They log all keyboard activities to their internal memory. Answer: D is incorrect. Anti-Virus software is used
to prevent, detect, and remove malware, including computer viruses, worms, and trojan horses. Such programs may
also
prevent and remove adware, spyware, and other forms of malware.
Anti-Virus software is a class of program that searches your hard drive, floppy drive, and pen drive for any known or
potential viruses. The market for this kind of program has expanded because of Internet growth and the increasing use
of the
Internet by businesses concerned about protecting their computer assets. Popular Anti-Virus packages are as follows:
Bit Defender Anti-Virus McAfee Virus Scan Kaspersky Anti-Virus F-Secure Anti-Virus Symantec Norton Anti-Virus
Panda
Titanium Anti-Virus Avira Anti-Virus Avast Anti-Virus Trend Micro Anti-Virus Grisoft AVG Anti-Virus ESET Nod32 Anti-
Virus Webroot Anti-Virus Quick Heal Anti-Virus eTrust EZ Anti-Virus ZoneAlarm Anti-Virus
Answer: B is incorrect. Alchemy Remote Executor is a system management tool that allows Network Administrators to
execute programs on remote network computers without leaving their workplace. From the hacker\\’s point of view, it
can be
useful for installing keyloggers, spyware, Trojans, Windows rootkits and such. One necessary condition for using the
Alchemy Remote Executor is that the user/attacker must have the administrative passwords of the remote computers
on
which the malware is to be installed.
Answer: C is incorrect. SocketShield provides a protection shield to a computer system against malware, viruses,
spyware, and various types of keyloggers. SocketShield provides protection at the following two levels:
1.Blocking: In this level, SocketShield uses a list of IP addresses that are known as purveyor of exploits. All http
requests for any page in these domains are simply blocked.
2.Shielding: In this level, SocketShield blocks all the current and past IP addresses that are the cause of unauthorized
access.

 

QUESTION 12
You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. Your computer has the Windows 2000 Server operating system.
You want to harden the security of the server. Which of the following changes are required to accomplish this? Each
correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Enable the Guest account.
B. Rename the Administrator account.
C. Remove the Administrator account.
D. Disable the Guest account.
Correct Answer: BD
Answer: B and D For security, you will have to rename the Administrator account and disable the Guest account.
Renaming the Administrator account will ensure that hackers do not break into the network or computer by guessing the
password of the Administrator account. You can also create a fake Administrator account that has no privileges and
audit its use to detect attacks. Disabling the Guest account will prevent users who do not have a domain or local user
account from illegally accessing the network or computer. By default, the Guest account is disabled on systems running
Windows 2000 Server. If the Guest account is enabled, you will have to disable it.

 

QUESTION 13
The stronger password is a critical element in the security plan. Which of the following are the characteristics used to
make up a strong password?
A. It contains more than seven hundred characters and does not contain the user name, real name, or any name that
can be guessed by the attacker easily.
B. It contains more than seven characters and does not contain the user name, real name, or anyname that can be
guessed by the attacker easily.
C. It contains the user name, real name, or any name that can be remembered easily and does not contain more than
seven characters.
D. It contains more than seven characters and the user name, real name, or any name.
Correct Answer: B
A strong password contains more than seven characters and does not contain the user name, real name, or any name
that can be guessed by the attacker easily.

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QUESTION 1
Which two roles can be modified? (Choose two.)
A. Administrator
B. Network Administrator
C. Datastore Consumer
D. Read-Only
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
An administrator wishes to give a user the ability to manage snapshots for virtual machines.
Which privilege does the administrator need to assign to the user?
A. Datastore.Allocate Space
B. Virtual machine.Configuration.create snapshot
C. Virtual machine.Configuration.manage snapshot
D. Datastore.Browse Datastore
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
What is the highest object level from which a virtual machine can inherit privileges?
A. Host Folder
B. Data Center
C. Data Center Folder
D. VM Folder
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
In which two vsphere.local groups should an administrator avoid adding members? (Choose two.)
A. SolutionUsers
B. Administrators
C. DCAdmins
D. ExternalPDUsers
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
Which three services can be enabled/disabled in the Security Profile for an ESXi host? (Choose three.)
A. CIM Server
B. Single Sign-On
C. Direct Console UI
D. Syslog Server
E. vSphere Web Access
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 6
Strict Lockdown Mode has been enabled on an ESXi host.Which action should an administrator perform to allow ESXi Shell or SSH access for users with
administrator privileges?
A. Grant the users the administrator role and enable the service.
B. Add the users to Exception Users and enable the service.
C. No action can be taken, Strict Lockdown Mode prevents direct access.
D. Add the users to vsphere.local and enable the service.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which two groups of settings should be reviewed when attempting to increase the security of virtual
machines (VMs)? (Choose two.)
A. Disable hardware devices
B. Disable unexposed features
C. Disable VMtools devices
D. Disable VM Template features
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
An administrator would like to use a passphrase for their ESXi 6.x hosts which has these characteristics:
Minimum of 21 characters
Minimum of 2 words
Which advanced options must be set to allow this passphrase configuration to be used?
A. retry=3 min=disabled, disabled, 7, 21, 7 passphrase=2
B. retry=3 min=disabled, disabled, 21, 7, 7 passphrase=2
C. retry=3 min=disabled, disabled, 2, 21, 7
D. retry=3 min=disabled, disabled, 21, 21, 2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
An administrator has recently audited the environment and found numerous virtual machines with sensitive
data written to the configuration files.
To prevent this in the future, which advanced parameter should be applied to the virtual machines?
A. isolation.tools.setinfo.disable = true
B. isolation.tools.setinfo.enable = true
C. isolation.tools.setinfo.disable = false
D. isolation.tools.setinfo.enable = false
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
When attempting to log in with the vSphere Web Client, users have reported the error:
Incorrect Username/Password
The administrator has configured the Platform Services Controller Identity Source as:
Type. Active Directory as an LDAP Server
Domain: vmware.com
Alias: VMWAREDefault Domain: Yes
Which two statements would explain why users cannot login to the vSphere Web Client? (Choose two.)
A. Users are typing the password incorrectly.
B. Users are in a forest that has 1-way trust.
C. Users are in a forest that has 2-way trust.
D. Users are logging into vCenter Server with incorrect permissions.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
An administrator needs to create an Integrated Windows Authentication (IWA) Identity Source on a newly
deployed vCenter Server Appliance (VCSA).
Which two actions will accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. Use a Service Principal Name (SPN) to configure the Identity Source.
B. Use a Domain administrator to configure the Identity Source.
C. Join the VCSA to Active Directory and configure the Identity Source with a Machine Account.
D. Create a computer account in Active Directory for the VCSA and configure the Identity Source.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12
An administrator is building a large virtual machine that will require as many vCPUs as the host can
support. An ESXi 6.x host has these specifications:
Six 32-core Intel Xeon Processors
256 GB of Memory
512 GB Local disk space using VMFS5
What is the maximum number of virtual CPUs that the virtual machine can be allocated?
A. 64
B. 128
C. 192
D. 256
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
An administrator is creating a new Content Library. It will subscribe to another remote Content Library
without authentication enabled.
What information from the published library will they need in order to complete the subscription ?
A. Subscription URL
B. A security password from the publishing Content Library
C. Publisher’s Items.json file
D. Username from the publishing Content Library
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
A user notifies an administrator that Content Libraries are not visible.
What is a possible solution?A. Assign the user the read-only role at the global permission level.
B. Assign the user the read-only role at the vCenter Server root level.
C. Assign the user the read-only role at the vCenter Server data center level.
D. Assign the user the read-only role at the vCenter Server cluster level.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
An administrator subscribes to the vCloud Air Disaster Recovery service.
Which replicated objects can be directly monitored and managed?
A. Virtual machine Snapshots
B. vApps
C. Virtual machines
D. ESXi Hosts
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which secondary Private VLAN (PVLAN) type can communicate and send packets to an Isolated PVLAN?
A. Community
B. Isolated
C. Promiscuous
D. Primary
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
What are two limitations of Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) on a vSphere Distributed Switch?
(Choose two.)
A. IP Hash load balancing is not a supported Teaming Policy.
B. Software iSCSI multipathing is not compatible.
C. Link Status Network failover detection must be disabled.
D. It does not support configuration through Host Profiles.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 18
An administrator runs the command esxcli storage core device list and sees the following output:
mpx.vmhba1:C0:T0:L0 Display Name: RAID 5 (mpx.vmhba1:C0:T0:L0) Has Settable Display Name: false
SizE. 40960 Device Type: Direct-Access Multipath Plugin: NMP Devfs Path:
/vmfs/devices/disks/mpx.vmhba1:C0:T0:L0 Status: off Is Local: true
What can be determined by this output?
A. The device is a being used for vFlash Read Cache.
B. The device is in a Permanent Device Loss (PDL) state.
C. The device is a local Solid State Device (SSD).
D. The device is in an All Paths Down (APD) state.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which two considerations should an administrator keep in mind when booting from Software Fiber Channelover Ethernet (FCoE)? (Choose two.)
A. Software FCoE boot configuration can be changed from within ESXi.
B. Software FCoE boot firmware cannot export information in FBFT format.
C. Multipathing is not supported at pre-boot.
D. Boot LUN cannot be shared with other hosts even on shared storage.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 20
Which two statements are true regarding VMFS3 volumes in ESXi 6.x? (Choose two.)
A. Creation of VMFS3 volumes is unsupported.
B. Upgrading VMFS3 volumes to VMFS5 is supported.
C. Existing VMFS3 volumes are unsupported.
D. Upgrading VMFS3 volumes to VMFS5 is unsupported.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 21
Where is a Virtual SAN Fault Domain configured?
A. VMware Virtual SAN Cluster configuration
B. VMware High Availability Cluster configuration
C. Distributed Resource Scheduler configuration
D. Datacenter Advanced Settings configuration
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which two tasks does the Pluggable Storage Architecture (PSA) perform? (Choose two.)
A. Handles I/O queueing to the logical devices.
B. Handles physical path discovery, but is not involved in the removal.
C. Handles physical path discovery and removal.
D. Handles I/O queueing to FC storage HBAs.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 23
What is the command to list multipathing modules on an ESXi 6.x host?
A. esxcli storage core list plugin –plugin-class=MP
B. esxcli storage core list plugin –class-plugin=MP
C. esxcli storage core plugin list –plugin-class=MP
D. esxcli storage core plugin list –class-plugin=MP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Refer to the Exhibit.
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What will be the result of selecting the highlighted device?
A. Datastore will grow up to 200.01GB using the remaining free space on the device.
B. Datastore will add 200.01GB by adding the device as a second extent.
C. The device size can be expanded to be larger than 200.01 GB in size.
D. The device is not suitable for this operation.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Refer to the Exhibit.
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An administrator wishes to provide Load Balanced I/O for the device shown in the Exhibit.
To meet this requirement, which setting should be changed?A. Storage Array Type Policy = VMW_NMP_RR
B. Path Selection Policy = Round Robin (VMware)
C. Storage Array Type Policy = VMW_SATP_RR
D. Path Selection Policy = MRU (VMware)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
Which file determines the location of the installation script during a scripted upgrade?
A. boot.cfg
B. ks.cfg
C. script.cfg
D. upgrade.cfg
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
What are three recommended prerequisites before upgrading virtual machine hardware? (Choose three.)
A. Create a backup or snapshot of the virtual machine.
B. Upgrade VMware Tools to the latest version.
C. Verify that the virtual machine is stored on VMFS3, VMFS5, or NFS datastores.
D. Detach all CD-ROM/ISO images from the virtual machines.
E. Set the Advanced Parameter virtualHW.version = 11
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 28
When upgrading vCenter Server, an administrator notices that the upgrade fails at the vCenter Single
Sign-On installation.
What must be done to allow the upgrade to complete?
A. Verify that the VMware Directory service can stop by manually restarting it.
B. Verify that the vCenter Single Sign-On service can stop by manually restarting it.
C. Uninstall vCenter Single Sign-On service.
D. Uninstall the VMware Directory service.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
An administrator is upgrading vCenter Server and sees this error:
The DB User entered does not have the required permissions needed to install and configure vCenter
Server with the selected DB.
Please correct the following error(s): %s
Which two statements explain this error? (Choose two.)
A. The database is set to an unsupported compatibility mode.
B. The permissions for the database are incorrect.
C. The permissions for vCenter Server are incorrect.
D. The database server service has stopped.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 30
Which log file would you examine to identify an issue which occurred during the pre-upgrade phase of a
vCenter Server upgrade process?
A. vcdb_req.out
B. vcdb_export.out
C. vcdb_import.out
D. vcdb_inplace.out
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 31
A vSphere Replication user needs to connect a source site to a target site.
What privilege is needed at both sites?
A. VRM remote.Manage VRM
B. VRM datastore mapper.Manage
C. Host.vSphere Replication.Manage replication
D. Virtual machine.vSphere Replication.Manage replication
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
Which keystore would a vSphere Replication administrator use to manually add an additional Certificate
Authority certificate?
A. hms-truststore.jks
B. hms-keystore.jks
C. certificates.ks
D. cacerts.ks
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 33
What is the compression algorithm used by vSphere Replication to compress data at the source?
A. FastLZ
B. Lz4
C. Lzr
D. Lzx
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 34
Refer to the Exhibit.
pass4itsure 2V0-621 question
An administrator is attempting to enable Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC), but receives the error
shown in the Exhibit.
Which condition would explain the error?
A. The ESXi hosts are not licensed for EVC.
B. The administrator does not have privileges to enable EVC.
C. The ESXi host CPU has the Intel No-Execute feature disabled.
D. The administrator has turned on Intel Virtualization Technology.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 35
An administrator notices that the time on an ESXi 6.x host is incorrect.
Which two actions should the administrator take to correct this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Modify the time for the host using the vSphere client.
B. Correct the NTP settings in the /etc/ntp.conf file.
C. Configure NTP from the Direct Console User Interface.
D. Use the vicfg-ntp command from the vSphere Management Appliance.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 36
An administrator decides to change the root password for an ESXi 6.x host to comply with the company’s
security policies.
What are two ways that this can be accomplished? (Choose two.)
A. Use the Direct Console User Interface to change the password.
B. Use the passwd command in the ESXi Shell.
C. Use the password command in the ESXi Shell.
D. Use the vSphere client to update local users.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 37
An administrator creates a custom ESXi firewall rule using an XML file, however the rules do not appear in
the vSphere Web Client.
Which action should the administrator take to correct the problem?
A. Load the new rules using esxcli network firewall reload.
B. Load the new rules using esxcli network firewall refresh.
C. Verify the entries in the XML file and then reboot the ESXi host.D. Remove the ESXi host from the inventory and add it back.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 38
An administrator wants to power on a virtual machine (VM) while connected to an ESXi host using SSH.
The VM has the following Name and ID:
VM Name = SQL001
VMID = 12345
Which command would successfully power on the virtual machine?
A. vim-cmd vmsvc/power.on 12345
B. vim-cmd vmsvc/power.on SQL001
C. vmware-vim-cmd vmsvc/power.on 12345
D. vmware-vim-cmd vmsvc/power.on SQL001
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 39
What will occur if the .nvram file is deleted from a powered off virtual machine?
A. The .nvram file will get created the next time the virtual machine is powered on.
B. Restoring the file from backup is needed to allow the virtual machine to power on.
C. The virtual machine will fail to power on and enter an Orphaned state.
D. The virtual machine will fail to power on and enter an Inaccessible state.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 40
An administrator tries to connect the vSphere 5.5 Client to an ESXi 6.x host.
What will happen when this takes place?
A. The operation will fail, since the vSphere Client is deprecated in vSphere 6.x.
B. The operation will fail and the administrator will need to delete the client and install the 6.x version.
C. The operation will prompt the administrator to run a script to upgrade the vSphere Client.
D. The operation will update the vSphere Client silently in the background, then connect.
Correct Answer: C

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