2V0-72.22 Exam Dumps Updated | Professional Develop VMware Spring Exam Actual Questions

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Exam 2V0-72.22: Spring Professional Develop

Exam 2V0-72.22 is a 130-minute exam in English. There are 60 questions, presented in single and multiple choice.

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Spring Certified Professional 2022

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  • VMware Customer Connect Learning
  • VMware Press
  • VMware Certification Market Place
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Q1. Which two options will inject the value of the daily.limit system property? (Choose two.)

A. @Value(“#{daily.limit}”)
B. @Value(“$(systemProperties.daily.limit)”)
C. @Value(“$(daily.limit)”)
D. @Value(“#{systemProperties[`daily.limit\\’]}”)
E. @Value(“#{systemProperties.daily.limit}”)

Correct Answer: BD

Q2. Which dependency enables an automatic restart of the application as code is changed during development of a Spring boot configuration on a web application? (Choose the best answer.)

A. spring-boot-devtools
B. spring-boot-initializr
C. spring-boot-starter-devtools
D. spring-boot-restart

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.spring.io/spring-boot/docs/current/reference/html/using.html

Q3. Which two statements are correct regarding Spring Boot auto-configuration customization? (Choose two.)

A. Use the @AutoConfigureAfter or @AutoConfigureBefore annotations to apply configuration in a specific order.
B. Disable specific auto-configuration classes by using the exclude attribute on the @EnableAutoConfiguation annotation.
C. Provide customized auto-configuration by subclassing the provided Spring Boot auto-configuration classes.
D. Enable component scanning within auto-configuration classes to find necessary components.
E. Control the order of auto-configuration classes applied with @AutoConfigureOrder.

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://docs.spring.io/spring-boot/docs/1.4.3.RELEASE/reference/html/using-boot-autoconfiguration.html

Q4. Which two annotations indicate that the transaction for a transactional test method should be committed after the test method has completed? (Choose two.)

A. @SqlMergeMode(false)
B. @Rollback(false)
C. @Commit
D. @Sql(alwaysCommit=true)
E. @Transactional(commit=true)

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://stackoverflow.com/questions/9817388/junit-tests-always-rollback-the-transactions

Q5. Which two statements are true regarding the RestTemplate class? (Choose two.)

A. It supports asynchronous non-blocking model.
B. It automatically supports sending and receiving Java objects.
C. It provides convenience methods for writing REST clients.
D. It provides convenience methods for writing REST services.
E. Sending an HTTP request with a custom header is not possible when using RestTemplate.

Correct Answer: BE

Reference: https://docs.spring.io/spring-framework/docs/current/javadoc-api/org/springframework/web/
client/RestTemplate.html

Q6. Which two statements are true regarding Spring Security? (Choose two.)

A. Access control can be configured at the method level.
B. A special Java Authentication and Authorization Service (JAAS) policy file needs to be configured.
C. Authentication data can be accessed using a variety of different mechanisms, including databases and LDAP.
D. In the authorization configuration, the usage of permitAll () allows bypassing Spring security completely.
E. It provides a strict implementation of the Java EE Security specification.

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.baeldung.com/security-none-filters-none-access-permitAll

Q7. What two options are auto-configured Spring Boot Actuator HealthIndicators? (Choose two.)

A. DataSourceHealthIndicator
B. GoogleCloudDataStoreHealthIndicator
C. DynamoDBHealthIndicator
D. RabbitHealthIndicator
E. OktaHealthIndicator

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://docs.spring.io/spring-boot/docs/1.5.x/reference/html/production-ready-endpoints.html

Q8. Refer to the exhibit.
What is the id/name of the declared bean in this Java configuration class? (Choose the best answer.)

A. clientServiceImpl (starting with lowercase “c”)
B. clientServiceImpl (starting with uppercase “C”)
C. clientService (starting with lowercase “c”)
D. ClientService (starting with uppercase “C”)

Correct Answer: D

Q9. Which two options are valid optional attributes for Spring\\’s @Transactional annotation? (Choose two.)

A. isolation
B. writeOnly
C. nestedTransaction
D. readWrite
E. propagation

Correct Answer: AE

Reference: https://learningviacode.blogspot.com/2012/10/attributes-in-springs-declarative.html

Q10. Refer to the exhibit.
It is a Java code fragment from a Spring application. Which statement is true with regard to the above example? (Choose the best answer.)

A. This syntax is invalid because the result of the getBean() method call should be cast to ClientService.
B. It will return a bean called ClientService regardless of its id or name.
C. This syntax is invalid because the bean id must be specified as a method parameter.
D. It will return a bean of the type ClientService regardless of its id or name.

Correct Answer: D

Q11. Which two statements are true regarding a Spring Boot-based Spring MVC application? (Choose two.)

A. The default embedded servlet container can be replaced with Undertow.
B. Jetty is the default servlet container.
C. Spring Boot starts up an embedded servlet container by default.
D. The default port of the embedded servlet container is 8088.
E. Spring MVC starts up an in-memory database by default.

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://www.javatpoint.com/spring-vs-spring-boot-vs-spring-mvc

Q12. Which two statements about pointcut expressions are true? (Choose two.)

A. A pointcut expression cannot specify the type of parameters.
B. A pointcut expression will throw an exception if no methods are matched.
C. A pointcut expression cannot have a wildcard for a method name.
D. A pointcut expression can include operators such as the following: andand (and), || (or), ! (not).
E. A pointcut expression can be used to select join points which have been annotated with a specific annotation.

Correct Answer: DE
Reference: https://www.baeldung.com/spring-aop-pointcut-tutorial

Q13. Spring puts each bean instance in a scope. What is the default scope? (Choose the best answer.)

A. prototype
B. singleton
C. request
D. session

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://stackoverflow.com/questions/17599216/spring-bean-scopes

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C1000-093: IBM Cloud Pak for Integration v2020.1 Solution Architect How much do I know about the basics of the exam?

Number of questions: 60
Number of questions to pass: 42
Allowed time: 90 minutes
Exam Resources:
Solution Architect: IBM Cloud Pak for Integration
Certificate: IBM Certified Solution Architect – Cloud Pak for Integration v2020.1

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IBM C1000-093 Exam Questions Free

QUESTION 1

What is the correct order of dependencies in the DataPower Gateway services point of view as they are nested into each other?

QUESTION 2

What is CRI-O?

A. A Windows .NET compatibility library available in the OpenShift Developer Catalog
B. A Kubernetes native container runtime implementation that integrates closely with CoreOS
C. The graphical user interface for Operators to administer applications/workloads running on OpenShift D. An optional version of Docker optimized for OpenShift when running on cloud provider platforms

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3

What is a significant challenge that is unique to hybrid messaging?

A. Iterate quickly on the cloud and interact easily with enterprise systems of records
B. Build a scalable and high-throughput enterprise messaging backbone to support applications on the cloud
C. Synchronous connection and distribution of events between cloud and on-premises systems
D. Monitoring of privileged access to sensitive data and integrity of sensitive data in transit and at rest can be done only within the enterprise

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4

What is the IBM App Connect Enterprise Toolkit?

A. A high availability management tool
B. A command-line interface for App Connect integration
C. A web user interface for accessing integration server resources
D. A graphical user interface for message flow development

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5

Application-owned asynchronous capabilities, like messaging and events, must exhibit which features align with the agile integration paradigm.

A. Simple deployment topology for high availability configuration
B. Ability to convert messages to events and vice versa
C. Self-provisioning and self-administration capability to allow development agility
D. Common collection of logs across several instances for rapid administration

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6

What is one way to perform an automated build of an App Connect Enterprise (ACE) application within a CI/CD pipeline?

A. Build a bar file from a Project Interchange within the ACE toolkit and push it to GitHub.
B. Run a Docker build to create a bar file within a Jenkins pipeline, and store it in Artifactory.
C. Use Source2lmage within a Tekton pipeline to create a bar file from a Project Interchange.
D. Use Jenkins to spin up an ACE container, build a bar file, and destroy the container.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7

A new proxy API needs to be created, security added, and published to the Sandbox catalog. Which is the correct sequence of steps that should be taken to perform these tasks?

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 8

In the image below, select the user role that can include an API endpoint to existing API products and plans, and specifies access control, and publishes the API to the developer portal for external discovery.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 9

Which statement is true about IBM Event Streams?

A. A hierarchical Pub/Sub topic architecture is available
B. All servers must be located in the same data center
C. Persistent storage is enabled by default
D. By default the consumers offset is automatically committed in the background

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

Which of the following maximizes durability by replicating message data into three availability zones, making Event Streams resilient to infrastructure failures?

A. Geo-data sync
B. Triplewrite logging
C. PersistentVolumes
D. Multi-zone architecture

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11

Which statement regarding the IBM Entitled Registry key is true?

A. It is used by the Asset Repository to synchronize with a remote Git repository
B. It is configured in the Platform Navigator
C. It is required to enable Cloud Pak for Integration capabilities
D. It is used by the network-based installer

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12

How can DataPower Gateway workloads be restored in the DR site?

A. DataPower Gateway container images need to be available in a container registry that the DR site has access to
B. Cloud Pak for Integration can automatically synchronize the running pods with the DR site
C. In Cloud Pak for Integration Platform Navigator, select the running DataPower Gateway instance and then click \\’ Export for DR site\\’
D. Containers do not hold state, which would require workloads to be reconfigured from scratch

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13

What is the key benefit of moving away from a centralized ESB pattern to Agile Integration?

A. Faster rollout of integrations, enhanced scalability, and resilience
B. Rapid creation of integrations using a no-code approach
C. API-led integration enabling agility and innovation
D. Multi-cloud deployment of integration artifacts

Correct Answer: B

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NS0-162 Exam Dumps [Updated] Valid NetApp Certified (ONTAP) Preparation Materials

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What is NetApp Certified Data Administrator (NCDA) NS0-162 exam?

Learn how to implement a high-availability controller configuration and learn more about technologies for managing and protecting mission-critical data.

You need to focus on:

Full name: NetApp Certified Data Administrator (ONTAP)
Abbreviation: NS0-162
Language: English, in countries where English is not their first language, candidates whose first language is not English will be allowed an additional 30 minutes to complete the test.
Number of questions: 60 test questions
Exam Duration: Complete within 1-1/2 hours
Prerequisites: At least 6 to 12 months of field experience implementing and managing NetApp® data storage solutions in multiprotocol environments, NetApp Support Site account required
Learning Resources:

  • ONTAP Cluster Fundamentals (WBT)
  • ONTAP Cluster Administration (ILT)
  • ONTAP Data Protection Fundamentals (WBT)
  • NS0-162 Practice test
  • View Exam Topics
  • Register for NS0-162
NS0-162 exam

Theme:

Storage Platforms

Describe knowledge of physical storage systems.
Describe software-defined on-premises or cloud storage systems.
Describe how to upgrade or scale ONTAP clusters.

Core ONTAP

Describe ONTAP system management.
Describe high availability concepts.
Describe how to manage Storage Virtual Machines (SVM).

Logical Storage

Describe how to use logical storage features.
Describe NetApp storage efficiency features.
Describe NetApp ONTAP Data Fabric solutions.

Networking

Describe how to use network components.
Demonstrate knowledge of how to troubleshoot network components.

SAN Solutions and Connectivity

Describe how to use SAN solutions.
Demonstrate knowledge of how to troubleshoot SAN solutions.

NAS Solutions

Describe how to use NAS solutions.
Demonstrate knowledge of how to troubleshoot NAS solutions.

Data Protection

Describe how to use ONTAP data protection solutions.
Describe how to use SnapMirror.
Identify MetroCluster concepts.

Security

Describe protocol security.
Describe security hardening.
Describe inflight or at rest encryption.
Identify SnapLock concepts.

Performance

Demonstrate knowledge of how to administer ONTAP performance.
Demonstrate knowledge of how to troubleshoot storage system performance.

Individuals who successfully pass the NetApp Certified Data Administrator ONTAP (NS0-162) exam will receive the NCDA logo and certificate.

This is shown below:

Certified Data Administrator (NCDA) logo

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QUESTION # 1

Click the Exhibit button.

A Linux host with the 10.0.1.24 IP address is unable to mount the VOL_A volume using NFSv3. Referring to the exhibit, what is the problem?

A. The volume is in read-only
B. The logical interface does not allow the NFSv3 protocol
C. The host IP address does not match the export policy rule
D. The volume is not mounted in the namespace

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION # 2

Which two statements are true about NVMe? (Choose two.)

A. NQNs are added to namespaces
B. LUNs are mapped to initiator groups
C. Namespaces are mapped to subsystems
D. NQNs are added to subsystems

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: http://docs.netapp.com/ontap-9/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.netapp.doc.dot-cmsanag%2FGUID52A6B6A1-61F8-4845-91CB-B13A1526CC30.html

QUESTION # 3

Your company requests that the monthly performance data of your ONTAP 9.8 cluster be exported to a CSV file for further processing. In this scenario, which three NetApp products satisfy this requirement? (Choose three.)

A. Active IQ OneCollect
B. Cloud Insights
C. ONTAP System Manager
D. Active IQ Config Advisor
E. Active IQ Unified Manager
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION # 4

Windows 2019 reports 500 GB of free space on a disk; however, on the storage side, the LUN has 0 bytes free. When the host deletes files on the disk, auto re-claim on the thin-provisioned LUN does not occur.
In this scenario, which action should you take to enable space reclamation?

A. Set the space allocation option to enable
B. Set the space allocation option to disable
C. Enable space guarantees on the volume
D. Enable space guarantees on the LUN

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://kb.netapp.com/Advice_and_Troubleshooting/Data_Storage_Software/ONTAP_OS/ Storage_autoreclamation_does_not_occur

QUESTION # 5

You are attempting to establish a SnapMirror relationship between your ONTAP cluster (AcmeClus01) and a partner company\’s ONTAP cluster (WidgetsClus01). The clusters are unable to establish a peering relationship. You perform a packet capture on WidgetsClus01 and do not see any packets from AcmeClus01.

You also discover that the IP subnet that is used for WidgetsClus01\’s intercluster LIFs overlaps with a local subnet at your company. In this scenario, which feature would enable AcmeClus01 and WidgetsClus01 to peer with each other?

A. VLANs
B. broadcast domains
C. IPspaces
D. ONTAP subnets

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.google.com/url? sa=tandrct=jandq=andesrc=sandsource=webandcd=andved=2ahUKEwj0166P
sY3yAhVKAWMBHbxDCkQFjAFegQIBBADandurl=https%3A%2F%2Fdownload.lenovo.com%2Fstorage%
2Fsnapmirror_configuration_and_best_practices_guide_for_ontap_9.pdfandusg=AOvVaw19DXzCszrQCTX
EWGtrbRQ7

QUESTION # 6

After creating several volumes, you notice that the hosting aggregates immediately show a decrease in available space. Which volume setting would prevent this outcome?

A. space guarantee set to “volume”
B. space SLO set to “semi-thick”
C. space guarantee set to “none”
D. space SLO set to “thick”

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION # 7

Click the Exhibit button.

You have an ONTAP 9.8 cluster. After network maintenance, the LIF that is shown in the exhibit is not always on the correct port and is unreachable by users until the LIFs are moved to port e0c or e0d on either storage node.

In this scenario, which action should you take to ensure that the LIF only fails over to the correct ports?

A. Change the LIF\\’s failover policy to sfo-partner-only
B. Split the broadcast domain
C. Create a DNS load balancing zone
D. Create an IP space

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION # 8

Click the Exhibit button.

You have an SVM-DR relationship as shown in the exhibit. You are given a new requirement to use SnapMirror Synchronous (SM-S) for the data volumes in NFS-SVM-01. In this scenario, which solution is supported to enable SM-S in ONTAP 9.8 software?

A. Set up new SM-S relationships from the FAS2720 to a new destination
B. Set up NetApp Cloud Sync with a cloud broker in AWS to replicate to a new destination
C. Modify the existing SVM-DR policy to use sync mode
D. Set up new SM-S relationships from the AFF A220 to a new destination

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION # 9

Your company requires WORM archiving of data on their ONTAP cluster. The data must not be able to be deleted even by an administrator. Which ONTAP feature fulfills this requirement?

A. SnapVault software
B. SnapMirror software
C. SnapLock Enterprise
D. SnapLock Compliance

Correct Answer: D

Reference: http://doc.agrarix.net/netapp/doc/Archive%20and%20Compliance%20Management% 20Guide.pdf (9)

QUESTION # 10

A user wants existing data in a FlexVol created in ONTAP 9.1 to be placed into a FlexGroup volume with ONTAP 9.8. In this scenario, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Use SnapMirror to replicate data from FlexVol to FlexGroup
B. Use XCP to copy data from a FlexVol to a FlexGroup
C. You can convert the FlexVol volume to a FlexGroup volume
D. A FlexVol to FlexGroup conversion is not supported

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION # 11

Click the Exhibit button.

The availability of the remote cluster in the peering relationship shows “Partial”. Referring to the exhibit, what is the reason for this status message?

A. The intercluster LIFs on the local cluster are unavailable and not able to communicate to the remote cluster
B. The remote cluster does not have its cluster license applied properly
C. Some nodes in the local cluster are not able to contact some or all nodes in the remote cluster
D. The local cluster is unable to authenticate successfully to the remote cluster

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Some nodes in the local cluster are not able to contact some or all nodes in the remote cluster.

QUESTION # 12

You have a remote FlexCache storage device that is running on ONTAP Select 9.8 software. The cache origin volume is on a FAS8700 that is running ONTAP 9.8 software. The WAN connection dropped, and the FlexCache volume is in disconnected mode. In this scenario, which LIFs would you ping to troubleshoot the disconnect?

A. management
B. cluster
C. data
D. intercluster

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION # 13

Which statement is correct about Temperature Sensitive Storage Efficiency (TSSE)?

A. TSSE operations on an AFF array are automatically throttled depending on whether data is hot or cold
B. TSSE is enabled automatically on newly created thick provisioned volumes
C. TSSE operations on Cloud Volumes ONTAP are automatically throttled depending on whether data is hot or cold
D. TSSE operations on ONTAP Select are automatically throttled depending on whether data is hot or cold

Correct Answer: D

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Cisco 350-801 CLCOR: Practice Test

QUESTION 1

A network administrator deleted a user from the LDAP directory of a company. The end-user shows an Inactive LOAP
Synchronized User in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which step is next to remove this user from Cisco
Unified Communications Manager?

A. Delete the user directly from Cisco Unified Communications Manager
B. Restart the Dirsync service after the user is deleted from the LDAP directory.
C. Execute a manual sync to refresh the local database and delete the end user.
D. Wait 24 hours for the garbage collector to remove the user.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2

Which description of the Mobile and Remote Access feature is true?

A. Collaboration Edge feature that enables remote individuals to perform international calls from Jabber with a VPN
connection.
B. Collaboration Edge feature that enables remote individuals to access all enterprise collaboration services using a PC
within the corporate environment.
C. Collaboration Edge feature that enables remote individuals to access enterprise collaboration services via Jabber
without the use of a VPN connection.
D. Collaboration Edge feature that enables remote individuals to access enterprise collaboration services via Jabber
with the use of a VPN connection.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3

Which action enables Cisco MRA?

A. Cisco UCC Express clients can obtain VPN connectivity to Cisco UCC Enterprise.
B. VPN connectivity can be established to Cisco UCM.
C. Clients such as Cisco Jabber can use call control on Cisco UCM.
D. Internal SIP clients registered to Cisco UCM can call external companies’

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4

Which access control group is required on an end-user to allow Jabber to do desk phone mode?

A. Allow Control of Device from CTI
B. Standard CTI Enabled
C. Standard CTI Allow Reception of SRTP Key Material
D. Standard CTI Secure Connection

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5

How is bandwidth allocated to traffic flows in a flow-based WFQ solution?

A. Each type of traffic flow has equal bandwidth.
B. Bandwidth is divided among traffic flows. Voice has priority.
C. Voice has priority and the other types of traffic share the remaining bandwidth
D. All the bandwidth is divided based on the QoS marking of the packets

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6

Which statement describes the Maximum Serving Count service parameter of the Cisco TFTP service on Cisco Unified
Communications Manager?

A. It specifies the maximum number of files in the TFTP server disk storage.
B. It specifies the maximum number of TFTP client requests to accept and to serve files at a given time.
C. It specifies the maximum file support by the Cisco TFTP service.
D. It specifies the maximum file counts, in the cache as well as in disk, that are supported by the Cisco TFTP service.
E. It specifies the maximum number of TFTP client requests to accept and to serve files in a 120-minute window.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7

What is a software-based media resource that is provided by the Cisco IP Voice Media Streaming Application?

A. video conference bridge
B. auto-attendant
C. transcoder
D. annunciator

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/collab09/clb09/media.html

QUESTION 8

Refer to the exhibit. This INVITE is sent to an endpoint that only supports G729. What must be done for this call to
succeed?

A. Nothing: both sides support G.729.
B. Add a transcoder that supports G711ulaw and G.729.
C. Add a media termination point that supports G.711ulaw and G.729.
D. Nothing: both sides support payload type 101.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9

A remote office has a less-than-optimal WAN connection and experiences packet loss, delay, and jitter. Which VoIP
the codec should be used in this situation?

A. G.711ulaw
B. iLBC
C. G.722.1
D. G.729A

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/collaboration-voice-and-video/summary-of-cucm-supported-codecs/tap/3162905

QUESTION 10

How can an administrator stop Cisco Unified Communications Manager from advertising the OPUS codec for recording
enabled devices?

A. Route recorded calls through Cisco Unified Border Element because it does not support OPUS.
B. Go to the phone\\’s configuration page and set “Advertise OPUS Codec” to be “false”.
C. Integrate the Cisco Unified CM with 3 recording solution that does not support OPUS.
D. In CUCM Service Parameters set “Opus Codec Enabled” to “Enabled for all Devices Except Recording-Enabled
Devices.”

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/unified-communications-managercallmanager/211297-Configure-Opus-Support-on-Cisco-Unified.pdf

QUESTION 11

Which configuration tells a switch part to send Cisco Discovery Protocol packets that configure an attached Cisco IP
phone to trust tagged traffic that is received from a device that is connected to the access port on the Cisco IP phone?

A. Router# configure terminal Router(config)# interface gigabitethernet 5/1 Router(config-if)# platform QoS trust extend
B. Router# configure terminal Router(config)# interface gigabitethernet 5/1 Router(config-if)# platform QoS trust extend cos 3
C. Router# configure terminal Router(config)# interface gigabitethernet 5/1 Router(config-if)# platform QoS trust extend cos 5
D. Router# configure terminal Router(config)# interface gigabitethernet 5/1 Router(config-if)# platform QoS extend trust

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12

Which protocol does Cisco Prime Collaboration Assurance use to poll the health status of different systems in the
Collaboration environment?

A. SIP
B. SNMP
C. SCCP
D. SMTP

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/cloud-systems-management/prime-collaboration/guidec07-736946.html#_Toc446633083

QUESTION 13

When setting a new primary DNS server in the Cisco UCM CLI what is required for the change to take effect?

A. restart of CallManager service
B. restart of DirSync service
C. restart of the network service
D. restart of TFTP service

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14

Which command in the MGCP gateway configuration defines the secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager
server?

A. mgcapp
B. ccm-manager fallback-mgcp
C. mgcp call-agent
D. ccm-manager redundant-host

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15

Which statement about Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco IM and Presence backups is true?

A. Backups should be scheduled during off-peak hours to avoid system performance issues.
B. Backups are saved as .tar files and encrypted using the web administrator account.
C. Backups are saved as unencrypted .tar files.
D. Backups are not needed for subscriber Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco IM and Presence
servers.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/11_5_1_SU1/Administration/cucm_b_ad
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QUESTION 1 #

You need to recommend a solution for the business process testing plan. What should you recommend?

A. LCS Business process library
B. SysTest framework
C. Chain test cases
D. Derived test cases

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2 #

An organization is implementing Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management.
You need to create a plan to define performance test scenarios.
Which three actions should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Define the performance testing scenarios.
B. Define whether users of the system will be adequately trained.
C. Determine the size of the production environment in the cloud.
D. Define the expected normal and peak volumes for the functional areas in scope.
E. Define measured goals and constraints for response time and throughput for each scenario.

Correct Answer: ADE

Reference: https://medius.studios.ms/video/asset/PPT/MBAS19-THR2066

QUESTION 3 #

HOTSPOT
You are an architect implementing Dynamics 365.
The Dynamics 365 administrator who manages deployments of components leaves the company.
Microsoft Azure DevOps pipelines must be configured to automate deployments.

You need to recommend which Microsoft Azure DevOps pipeline tasks to use to meet the requirements.
What should you recommend? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 4 #

A company plans to implement Dynamics 365 Finance Operations (on-premises).
The company has system compliance requirements that must be addressed.
You need to design the solution for the company.
What should you address in the design?

A. job-protected family and medical leave
B. workers\\’ compensation
C. employee retirement
D. data privacy

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5 #

A company uses a legacy finance application that runs on a single SQL Server instance. The company plans to implement Dynamics 365 Finance. The following table describes the current implementation and design decisions for
the new implementation:

You need to identify the gap in the migration plan. Which requirement should you identify as a gap?

A. Business logic
B. Users
C. User Interface
D. Reports
E. Data

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/enterprise/add-several-users-at-the-same-time

QUESTION 6 #

HOTSPOT
A United States-based company has a cloud-based Dynamics 365 Finance implementation. The company plans to
open a new location in Mexico.
Electronic invoicing is mandated in Mexico.

You need to recommend a solution that meets Mexican localization reporting requirements.
What should you recommend? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/finance/localizations/latam-mex-cfdi-electronic-invoices

QUESTION 7 #

You need to determine which system functionality meets the business requirement.
What should you recommend? To answer, drag the appropriate functionalities to the correct requirements.

Each functionality may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes
or scroll to view content
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point

Select and Place:

QUESTION 8 #

A holding company with three independently managed and operated subsidiaries in implementing Dynamics 365
Finance.

The company needs to ensure the restriction of data for each company from its subsidiary counterparts.
You need to determine an organization’s structure.
Which structure should you recommend?

A. single legal entity with security policies
B. separate legal entities
C. single legal entity with the custom business unit financial dimension
D. single entity that consolidates legal entities
E. single legal entity with default business unit financial dimension

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9 #

A company is upgrading its AX 2012 R3 environment to Dynamics 365 Finance. The company plans to upgrade the
datastore by using a phased approach.

You need to define the strategy to migrate master data and opening balances.
Which tool should you recommend?

A. Data Import/Export Framework
B. Microsoft Dynamics AX Intelligent Data Management Framework
C. Combine XPO tool
D. Business process modeler

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamicsax-2012/appuser-itpro/what-s-new-data-import-export-andmigration

QUESTION 10 #

A toy manufacturer keeps finished products in a physical warehouse.
1. The manufacturer and distributor use different inventory control software.
2. Sales orders are used to move inventory to the distributor.
3. The distributor must be notified immediately when the toy manufacturer ships an order.

You need to determine a solution for providing notifications to the distributor\’s inventory system.
What are three possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. OData
B. Custom web service
C. Lifecycle Services
D. Business events
E. Recurring integrations

Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 11 #

A travel agency is implementing Dynamics 365 Finance and Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management. The agency
must validate and perform these tasks during each regression cycle.

1. Purchase and sales processes
2. Payment gateway functionality to third-party integration
3. Vendor payment
4. Notifications
5. Chart control
6. Page refresh data consistency You need to determine which tasks can be performed using the Regression suite
automation tool (RSAT).

Which three tasks can be performed? Each Correct answer presents a complete solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point

A. chart control
B. notifications
C. page refresh data consistency
D. configure vendor payment settings
E. purchase and sales processes

Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 12 #

A company is moving financial workloads to Dynamics 365 Finance.
Balance sheet accounts do not require department dimension postings while profit and loss accounts require
department dimensions.

You need to determine which functionality achieves the goal.
What should you recommend?

A. Legal entities
B. Financial dimensions
C. Account structures
D. Financial dimension sets

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13 #

An organization is planning to migrate to Dynamics 365 Finance.
The organization reports that the legacy system has failed during peak sessions.
You need to recommend an approach that will handle peak session volume.

Which two approaches should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Use performance and load testing.
B. Configure a single box development environment.
C. Perform user integration testing.
D. Optimize server configuration.

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 14 #

You are preparing a proof of concept environment using Dynamics 365 Finance. You need to analyze the results
generated from the Regression suite automation tool (RSAT). Which Lifecycle Services tool should you use to store the
RSAT testing files?

A. Asset library
B. Business process modeler
C. Usage profiler
D. Methodologies

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15 #

You are designing a solution for a company. The solution will integrate with various data sources.
You need to recommend the correct timing for each integration pattern.

What should you recommend? To answer, drag the appropriate timings to the correct patterns. Each timing may be
used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

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QUESTION 1
You need to meet the compliance requirements for the Windows 10 devices. What should you create from the Intune
admin center?
A. a device compliance policy
B. a device configuration profile
C. an app protection policy
D. an app configuration policy
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/information-protection/windows-informationprotection/create-wip-policy-using-intune-azure


QUESTION 2
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription and an on-premises Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All client
computers run Windows 10 Enterprise and are joined to the domain.
You need to enable Windows Defender Credential Guard on all the computers.
What should you do?
A. From the Security and Compliance admin center, configure the DKIM signatures for the domain.
B. From a domain controller, create a Group Policy object (GPO) that enables the Restrict delegation of credentials to
remote servers setting.
C. From the Security and Compliance admin center, create a device security policy.
D. From a domain controller, create a Group Policy object (GPO) that enabled the Turn On Virtualization Based Security
setting.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/identity-protection/credential-guard/credential-guardmanage

QUESTION 3
A user receives the following message when attempting to sign in to https://myapps.microsoft.com:
“Your sign-in was blocked. We\\’ve detected something unusual about this sign-in. For example, you might be signing in
from a new location, device, or app. Before you can continue, we need to verify your identity. Please contact your
admin.” Which configuration prevents the users from signing in?
A. Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) Identity Protection policies
B. Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) conditional access policies
C. Security and Compliance supervision policies
D. Security and Compliance data loss prevention (DLP) policies
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/conditional-access/overview

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QUESTION 1
You need to meet the compliance requirements for the Windows 10 devices. What should you create from the Intune
admin center?
A. a device compliance policy
B. a device configuration profile
C. an app protection policy
D. an app configuration policy
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/information-protection/windows-informationprotection/create-wip-policy-using-intune-azure


QUESTION 2
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription and an on-premises Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All client
computers run Windows 10 Enterprise and are joined to the domain.
You need to enable Windows Defender Credential Guard on all the computers.
What should you do?
A. From the Security and Compliance admin center, configure the DKIM signatures for the domain.
B. From a domain controller, create a Group Policy object (GPO) that enables the Restrict delegation of credentials to
remote servers setting.
C. From the Security and Compliance admin center, create a device security policy.
D. From a domain controller, create a Group Policy object (GPO) that enabled the Turn On Virtualization Based Security
setting.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/identity-protection/credential-guard/credential-guardmanage

QUESTION 3
A user receives the following message when attempting to sign in to https://myapps.microsoft.com:
“Your sign-in was blocked. We\\’ve detected something unusual about this sign-in. For example, you might be signing in
from a new location, device, or app. Before you can continue, we need to verify your identity. Please contact your
admin.” Which configuration prevents the users from signing in?
A. Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) Identity Protection policies
B. Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) conditional access policies
C. Security and Compliance supervision policies
D. Security and Compliance data loss prevention (DLP) policies
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/conditional-access/overview

QUESTION 4
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
Some users have iPads that are managed by your company.
You plan to prevent the iPad users from copying corporate data in Microsoft Word and pasting the data into other
applications.
What should you create?
A. an app configuration policy
B. a compliance policy
C. a Conditional MOMS policy
D. an app protection policy
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/intune/app-protection-policy

QUESTION 5
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You need to be notified if users receive email containing a file that has a virus. What should you do?
A. From the Exchange admin center, create an in-place eDiscovery and hold.
B. From the Security and Compliance admin center, create a safe attachments policy.
C. From the Security and Compliance admin center, create a data loss prevention (DLP) policy.
D. From the Security and Compliance admin center, create an alert policy.
E. From the Exchange admin center, create a mail flow rule.evention (DLP) policy.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/alert-policies

QUESTION 6
You have three devices enrolled in Microsoft Intune as shown in the following table.

ms-101 exam questions-q6

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.

ms-101 exam questions-q6-2

QUESTION 7
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
All users are assigned a Microsoft 365 E3 license.
You enable auditing for your organization.
What is the maximum amount of time data will be retained in the Microsoft 365 audit log?
A. 2 years
B. 1 year
C. 30 days
D. 90 days
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/search-the-audit-log-in-security-andcompliance


QUESTION 8
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You need to view the IP address from which a user synced a Microsoft SharePoint library.
What should you do?
A. From the SharePoint admin center, view the usage reports.
B. From the Security and Compliance admin center, perform an audit log search.
C. From the Microsoft 365 admin center, view the usage reports.
D. From the Microsoft 365 admin center, view the properties of the user\\’s user account.
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/search-the-audit-log-in-security-andcompliance

QUESTION 9
From the Security and Compliance admin center, you create a retention policy named Policy1.
You need to prevent all users from disabling the policy or reducing the retention period.
Which command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

ms-101 exam questions-q9

QUESTION 10
You have the Microsoft Azure Active Director (Azure AD) users shown in the following table.

ms-101 exam questions-q10

You create a conditional access policy that has the following settings:
The Assignments settings are configured as follows:
Users and groups: Group1
Cloud apps: Microsoft Office 365 Exchange Online
Conditions: Include All device state, exclude Device marked as compliant
Access controls is set to Block access.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

ms-101 exam questions-q10-2

Correct Answer:

ms-101 exam questions-q10-3

QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com that uses Microsoft System Center
Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
You have Windows 10 and Windows 8.1 devices.
You need to ensure that you can analyze the upgrade readiness of all the Windows 8.1 devices and analyze the update
compliance of all the Windows 10 devices.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

ms-101 exam questions-q11

Correct Answer:
ms-101 exam questions-q11-2

QUESTION 12
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You are deploying Microsoft Intune.
You successfully enroll Windows 10 devices in Intune.
When you try to enroll an iOS device in Intune, you get an error.
You need to ensure that you can enroll the iOS device in Intune.
Solution: You create an Apple Configurator enrollment profile.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You need to meet the technical requirement for the SharePoint administrator. What should you do? To answer, select
the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

ms-101 exam questions-q13

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Vendor: Oracle
Certifications: Enterprise Performance Management (EPM)
Exam Code: 1z0-1081-20
Exam Name: Oracle Financial Consolidation and Close 2020 Implementation Essentials
Updated: Update throughout the year
Q&As:
116

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